Chapter 4715 | Dentists; Dental Hygienists

Any person shall be regarded as practicing dentistry, who is a manager, proprietor, operator, or conductor of a place for performing dental operations, or who teaches clinical dentistry, or who performs, or advertises to perform, dental operations of any kind, or who diagnoses or treats diseases or lesions of human teeth or jaws, or associated structures, or attempts to correct malpositions thereof, or who takes impressions of the human teeth or jaws, or who constructs, supplies, reproduces, or repairs any prosthetic denture, bridge, artificial restoration, appliance, or other structure to be used or worn as a substitute for natural teeth, except upon the order or prescription of a licensed dentist and constructed upon or by the use of casts or models made from an impression taken by a licensed dentist, or who advertises, offers, sells, or delivers any such substitute or the services rendered in the construction, reproduction, supply, or repair thereof to any person other than a licensed dentist, or who places or adjusts such substitute in the oral cavity of another, or uses the words "dentist," "dental surgeon," the letters "D.D.S.," or other letters or title in connection with his name, which in any way represents him as being engaged in the practice of dentistry.

Manager, proprietor, operator, or conductor as used in this section includes any person:

(A) Who employs licensed operators; (B)

Who places in the possession of licensed operators dental offices or dental equipment necessary for the handling of dental offices on the basis of a lease or any other agreement for compensation or profit for the use of such office or equipment, when such compensation is manifestly in excess of the reasonable rental value of such premises and equipment;

(C) Who makes any other arrangements whereby he derives profit, compensation, or advantage through retaining the ownership or control of dental offices or necessary dental equipment by making the same available in any manner for the use of licensed operators; provided that this section does not apply to bona fide sales of dental equipment secured by chattel mortgage.

Whoever having a license to practice dentistry or dental hygiene enters the employment of, or enters into any of the arrangements described in this section with, an unlicensed manager, proprietor, operator, or conductor, or who is determined mentally incompetent by a court of competent jurisdiction, or is committed by a court having jurisdiction for treatment of mental illness, may have his license suspended or revoked by the state dental board.

May 12, 2006 Latest Legislation: House Bill 143 - 126th General Assembly

The governor, with the advice and consent of the senate, shall appoint a state dental board consisting of thirteen persons, nine of whom shall be graduates of a reputable dental college, citizens of the United States, and shall have been in the legal and reputable practice of dentistry in the state at least five years next preceding their appointment; three of whom shall be graduates of a reputable school of dental hygiene, citizens of the United States, and shall have been in the legal and reputable practice of dental hygiene in the state at least five years next preceding their appointment; and one of whom shall be a member of the public at large who is not associated with or financially interested in the practice of dentistry.

Of the nine members who are in the practice of dentistry, two shall be persons recognized as specialists pursuant to rules adopted by the board. The specialist members shall be appointed in such a manner that the same specialty is not represented by both members at the same time. When a vacancy occurs in a position held by a specialist member, the governor shall make all reasonable efforts to fill the vacancy with a person who represents a specialty that is different from the specialty that was represented by the member who vacated the position.

Of the three members who are in the practice of dental hygiene, not more than one may be a person employed as a full-time teacher of dental hygiene students.

Representation of the various geographical areas of the state shall be considered in making appointments for members who are in the practice of dentistry and for members who are in the practice of dental hygiene.

Terms of office shall be for four years, commencing on the seventh day of April and ending on the sixth day of April. Each member shall hold office from the date of the member's appointment until the end of the term for which the member was appointed. Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior to the expiration of the term for which the member's predecessor was appointed shall hold office for the remainder of such term. Any member shall continue in office subsequent to the expiration date of the member's term until the member's successor takes office, or until a period of sixty days has elapsed, whichever occurs first. No person so appointed shall serve to exceed two terms.

The Ohio dental association may submit to the governor the names of five nominees for each position to be filled by a dentist and from the names so submitted or from others, at the governor's discretion, the governor shall make such appointments; provided that all such appointees shall possess the required qualifications. The Ohio dental hygienists association, inc., may submit to the governor the names of five nominees for each position to be filled by a dental hygienist and from the names so submitted or from others, at the governor's discretion, the governor shall make such appointments; provided that all such appointees shall possess the required qualifications. No person shall be appointed to the state dental board who is employed by or practices in a corporation holding a certificate of authority under Chapter 1751. of the Revised Code with a person who is a member of the board.

No member of the board shall administer to a student in this state or to a graduate of a dental college located in this state an examination on behalf of any of the following: the central regional dental testing service, inc., northeast regional board of dental examiners, inc., southern regional testing agency, inc., or western regional examining board.

December 29, 2023 Latest Legislation: Senate Bill 131 - 134th General Assembly

(A) The state dental board shall organize by electing from its members a president, secretary, and vice-secretary. The secretary and vice-secretary shall be elected from the members of the board who are dentists. It shall hold meetings monthly at least eight months a year at such times and places as the board designates. A majority of the members of the board shall constitute a quorum. The board shall make such reasonable rules as it determines necessary pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.

(B) A concurrence of a majority of the members of the board shall be required to do any of the following:

(1) Grant, refuse, suspend, place on probationary status, revoke, refuse to renew, or refuse to reinstate a license or censure a license holder or take any other action authorized under section 4715.30 of the Revised Code;

(2) Seek an injunction under section 4715.05 of the Revised Code;

(3) Enter into a consent agreement with a license holder;

(4) If the board develops and implements the quality intervention program under section 4715.031 of the Revised Code, refer a license holder to the program;

(5) Terminate an investigation conducted under division (D) of this section;

(6) Dismiss any complaint filed with the board.

(C)(1) The board shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to do both of the following:

(a) Establish standards for the safe practice of dentistry and dental hygiene by qualified practitioners and shall, through its policies and activities, promote such practice;

(b) Establish universal blood and body fluid precautions that shall be used by each person licensed under this chapter who performs exposure prone invasive procedures.

(2) The rules adopted under division (C)(1)(b) of this section shall define and establish requirements for universal blood and body fluid precautions that include the following:

(a) Appropriate use of hand washing;

(b) Disinfection and sterilization of equipment;

(c) Handling and disposal of needles and other sharp instruments;

(d) Wearing and disposal of gloves and other protective garments and devices.

(D) The board shall administer and enforce the provisions of this chapter. The board shall, in accordance with sections 4715.032 to 4715.035 of the Revised Code, investigate evidence which appears to show that any person has violated any provision of this chapter. Any person may report to the board under oath any information such person may have appearing to show a violation of any provision of this chapter. In the absence of bad faith, any person who reports such information or who testifies before the board in any disciplinary proceeding conducted pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code is not liable for civil damages as a result of making the report or providing testimony. If after investigation and reviewing the recommendation of the supervisory investigative panel issued pursuant to section 4715.034 of the Revised Code the board determines that there are reasonable grounds to believe that a violation of this chapter has occurred, the board shall, except as provided in this chapter, conduct disciplinary proceedings pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, seek an injunction under section 4715.05 of the Revised Code, enter into a consent agreement with a license holder, or provide for a license holder to participate in the quality intervention program established under section 4715.031 of the Revised Code if the board develops and implements that program.

For the purpose of any disciplinary proceeding or any investigation conducted under this division, the board may administer oaths, order the taking of depositions, issue subpoenas in accordance with section 4715.033 of the Revised Code, compel the attendance and testimony of persons at depositions, and compel the production of books, accounts, papers, documents, or other tangible things. The hearings and investigations of the board shall be considered civil actions for the purposes of section 2305.252 of the Revised Code. Notwithstanding section 121.22 of the Revised Code and except as provided in section 4715.036 of the Revised Code, proceedings of the board relative to the investigation of a complaint or the determination whether there are reasonable grounds to believe that a violation of this chapter has occurred are confidential and are not subject to discovery in any civil action.

(E)(1) The board shall examine or cause to be examined eligible applicants to practice dental hygiene. The board may distinguish by rule different classes of qualified personnel according to skill levels and require all or only certain of these classes of qualified personnel to be examined and certified by the board.

(2) The board shall administer a written jurisprudence examination to each applicant for a license to practice dentistry. The examination shall cover only the statutes and administrative rules governing the practice of dentistry in this state.

(F)(1) In accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, subject to division (F)(2) of this section the board shall adopt, and may amend or rescind, rules establishing the eligibility criteria, the application and permit renewal procedures, and safety standards applicable to a dentist licensed under this chapter who applies for a permit to employ or use conscious sedation. These rules shall include all of the following:

(a) The eligibility requirements and application procedures for an eligible dentist to obtain a conscious sedation permit;

(b) The minimum educational and clinical training standards required of applicants, which shall include satisfactory completion of an advanced cardiac life support course;

(c) The facility equipment and inspection requirements;

(d) Safety standards;

(e) Requirements for reporting adverse occurrences.

(2) The board shall issue a permit to employ or use conscious sedation in accordance with Chapter 4796. of the Revised Code to a dentist licensed under this chapter if either of the following applies:

(a) The dentist holds a license or permit to employ or use conscious sedation in another state.

(b) The dentist has satisfactory work experience, a government certification, or a private certification as described in Chapter 4796. of the Revised Code in employing or using conscious sedation in a state that does not issue that license.

(G)(1) In accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, subject to division (G)(2) of this section the board shall adopt rules establishing eligibility criteria, application and permit renewal procedures, and safety standards applicable to a dentist licensed under this chapter who applies for a general anesthesia permit.

(2) The board shall issue a general anesthesia permit in accordance with Chapter 4796. of the Revised Code to a dentist licensed under this chapter if either of the following applies:

(a) The dentist holds a general anesthesia license or permit in another state.

(b) The dentist has satisfactory work experience, a government certification, or a private certification as described in Chapter 4796. of the Revised Code utilizing general anesthesia in a state that does not issue that license or permit.

Last updated December 29, 2023 at 6:39 AM

March 23, 2015 Latest Legislation: House Bill 463 - 130th General Assembly

(A) The state dental board may develop and implement a quality intervention program. The board may propose that the holder of a license issued by the board participate in the program if the board determines pursuant to an investigation conducted under section 4715.03 of the Revised Code that there are reasonable grounds to believe the license holder has violated a provision of this chapter due to a clinical or communication problem that could be improved through participation in the program and determines that the license holder's participation in the program is appropriate. The board shall refer a license holder who agrees to participate in the program to an educational and assessment service provider selected by the board.

(B) If the board develops and implements a quality intervention program, all of the following apply:

(1) The board shall select, by a concurrence of a majority of the board's members, educational and assessment service providers, which may include quality intervention program panels of case reviewers. A provider selected by the board to provide services to a license holder shall recommend to the board the educational and assessment services the license holder should receive under the program. The license holder may begin participation in the program if the board approves the services the provider recommends. The license holder shall not be required to participate in the program beyond one hundred eighty days from the date the license holder agrees to participate in the program under this division. The license holder shall pay the amounts charged by the provider for the services.

(2) The board shall monitor a license holder's progress in the program and determine whether the license holder has successfully completed the program. If the board determines that the license holder has successfully completed the program, it may continue to monitor the license holder, take other action it considers appropriate, or both. The additional monitoring, other action taken by the board, or both, shall not continue beyond one year from the date the license holder agrees to participate in the program under this division. If the board determines that the license holder has not successfully completed the program, it shall, as soon as possible thereafter, commence disciplinary proceedings against the license holder under section 4715.03 of the Revised Code.

(3) The board shall elect, from the board's members who are dentists, a coordinator to administer and provide oversight of the quality intervention program. The coordinator may delegate to the board's members or employees those duties that the coordinator considers appropriate.

(C) The board may adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to further implement the quality intervention program.

September 13, 2010 Latest Legislation: House Bill 215 - 128th General Assembly

There is hereby created the supervisory investigative panel of the state dental board. The supervisory investigative panel shall consist solely of the board's secretary and vice-secretary. The supervisory investigative panel shall supervise all of the board's investigations.

March 13, 2013 Latest Legislation: Senate Bill 301 - 129th General Assembly

(A) All subpoenas the state dental board seeks to issue with respect to an investigation shall, subject to division (B) of this section, be authorized by the supervisory investigative panel.

(B) Before the supervisory investigative panel authorizes the board to issue a subpoena, the panel shall consult with the office of the attorney general and determine whether there is probable cause to believe that the complaint filed alleges a violation of this chapter or any rule adopted under it and that the information sought pursuant to the subpoena is relevant to the alleged violation and material to the investigation.

(C)(1) Any subpoena to compel the production of records that the board issues after authorization by the supervisory investigative panel shall pertain to records that cover a reasonable period of time surrounding the alleged violation.

(2)(a) Except as provided in division (C)(2)(b) of this section, the subpoena shall state that the person being subpoenaed has a reasonable period of time that is not less than seven calendar days to comply with the subpoena.

(b) If the board's secretary determines that the person being subpoenaed represents a clear and immediate danger to the public health and safety, the subpoena shall state that the person being subpoenaed must immediately comply with the subpoena.

(D) On a person's failure to comply with a subpoena issued by the board and after reasonable notice to that person of the failure, the board may move for an order compelling the production of persons or records pursuant to the Rules of Civil Procedure.

March 13, 2013 Latest Legislation: Senate Bill 301 - 129th General Assembly

(A) At any time during an investigation, the supervisory investigative panel may ask to meet with the individual who is the subject of the investigation. At the conclusion of the investigation, the panel shall recommend that the state dental board do one of the following:

(1) Pursue disciplinary action under section 4715.30 of the Revised Code;

(2) Seek an injunction under section 4715.05 of the Revised Code;

(3) Enter into a consent agreement if the subject of the investigation is a licensee;

(4) Refer the individual to the quality intervention program, if that program is developed and implemented under section 4715.031 of the Revised Code and the subject of the investigation is a licensee;

(5) Terminate the investigation.

(B) The supervisory investigative panel's recommendation shall be in writing and specify the reasons for the recommendation. Except as provided in section 4715.035 of the Revised Code, the panel shall make its recommendation not later than one year after the date the panel begins to supervise the investigation or, if the investigation pertains to an alleged violation of division (A)(9) of section 4715.30 of the Revised Code, not later than two years after the panel begins to supervise the investigation.

Once the panel makes its recommendation, the members of the panel shall not participate in any deliberations the board has on the case.

September 13, 2010 Latest Legislation: House Bill 215 - 128th General Assembly

Both of the following periods of time shall not be counted for purposes of determining the time within which the supervisory investigative panel is required to make its recommendation to the state dental board under section 4715.034 of the Revised Code:

(A) The period during which the panel suspends the investigation of an individual because the individual is also the subject of a criminal investigation and the panel is asked to do so by the entity conducting the criminal investigation or the panel determines it is necessary to do so as a result of the criminal investigation.

(B) The period beginning when the board moves for an order compelling the production of persons or records, as permitted by division (D) of section 4715.033 of the Revised Code, and ending when either of the following occurs:

(1) The court renders a decision not to issue the order.

(2) The court renders a decision to issue the order and the person subject to the order produces the persons or records.

October 3, 2023 Latest Legislation: House Bill 33 - 135th General Assembly

(A) As used in this section:

(1) "Personal identifying information" has the same meaning as in section 2913.49 of the Revised Code.

(2) "Confidential law enforcement investigatory record" has the same meaning as in section 149.43 of the Revised Code, except that it excludes information provided by an information source or witness to whom confidentiality has been reasonably promised, which information would reasonably tend to disclose the source's or witness's identity.

(B) If the state dental board notifies an applicant, license holder, or other individual of an opportunity for a hearing pursuant to sections 119.05 and 119.07 of the Revised Code, the board shall state in the notice that the individual is entitled to receive at least sixty days before the hearing, on the individual's request and as described in division (C) of this section, one copy of each item the board procures or creates in the course of its investigation on the individual. Such items may include, but are not limited to, the one or more complaints filed with the board; correspondence, reports, and statements; deposition transcripts; and patient dental records.

(C) On receipt of a request for copies of investigative items from an individual who is notified under division (B) of this section of an opportunity for a hearing, the board shall provide the copies to the individual in accordance with, and subject to, all of the following:

(1) The board shall provide the copies in a timely manner.

(2) The board may charge a fee for providing the copies, but the amount of the fee shall be set at a reasonable cost to the individual.

(3) Before providing the copies, the board shall determine whether the investigative items contain any personal identifying information regarding a complainant. If the board determines that the investigative items contain such personal identifying information, or any other information that would reveal the complainant's identity, the board shall redact the information from the copies it provides to the individual.

(4) The board shall not provide either of the following:

(a) Any information that is subject to the attorney-client privilege or work product doctrine, or that would reveal the investigatory processes or methods of investigation used by the board;

(b) Any information that would constitute a confidential law enforcement investigatory record.

(D) If a request for copies of investigative items is made pursuant to this section, the board in its scheduling of a hearing for the individual shall, notwithstanding section 119.07 of the Revised Code, schedule the hearing for a date that is at least sixty-one days after the board provides the individual with the copies of the items.

(E)(1) After the board notifies an individual of an opportunity for a hearing, the individual may ask the board to issue either or both of the following:

(a) A subpoena to compel the attendance and testimony of any witness at the hearing;

(b) A subpoena for the production of books, records, papers, or other tangible items.

(2) On receipt of an individual's request under division (E)(1) of this section, the board shall issue the subpoena.

In the case of a subpoena for the production of books, records, papers, or other tangible items, the person or government entity subject to the subpoena shall comply with the subpoena at least thirty days prior to the date the individual's hearing is scheduled to be held.

Last updated September 25, 2023 at 11:18 AM

March 23, 2015 Latest Legislation: House Bill 463 - 130th General Assembly

(A) Notwithstanding the permissive nature of hearing referee or examiner appointments under section 119.09 of the Revised Code, the state dental board shall appoint, by a concurrence of a majority of its members, three referees or examiners to conduct the hearings the board is required to hold pursuant to sections 119.01 to 119.13 of the Revised Code. Referees or examiners appointed under this section shall be attorneys who have been admitted to the practice of law in this state. In making the appointments, the board shall not appoint an attorney who is a board employee or represents the board in any other manner.

(B)(1) Referees or examiners appointed under this section shall serve not more than the following number of consecutive one-year terms:

(a) In the case of the first initial appointee, six;

(b) In the case of the second initial appointee, seven;

(c) In the case of the third initial appointee and all successor appointees, eight.

(2) The board may not refuse to reappoint a referee or examiner before the referee or examiner has served the maximum number of terms applicable to the referee or examiner unless the referee or examiner does not seek to serve the maximum number of terms or the board, by a concurrence of a majority of its members, determines there is cause not to reappoint the referee or examiner.

(C) The board shall assign one referee or examiner appointed under this section to conduct each hearing. Assignments shall be made in the order the board receives requests for hearings without regard to the experience or background of a particular referee or examiner or the consideration of any factor other than whether the referee or examiner is available at the appropriate time.

September 13, 2010 Latest Legislation: House Bill 215 - 128th General Assembly

A hearing referee or examiner assigned to conduct a hearing pursuant to section 4715.037 of the Revised Code shall hear and consider the oral and documented evidence introduced by the parties during the hearing. Not later than thirty days following the close of the hearing, the referee or examiner shall issue to the state dental board, in writing, proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law. Along with the proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law, the board shall be given copies of the record of the hearing and all exhibits and documents presented by the parties at the hearing.

September 13, 2010 Latest Legislation: House Bill 215 - 128th General Assembly

Prior to the state dental board's decision of a case, the board shall allow the parties or their counsel an opportunity to present oral arguments on the proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law issued by the hearing referee or examiner under section 4715.038 of the Revised Code. Not later than sixty days following the board's receipt of the proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law, or a date mutually agreed to by the board and the applicant for or holder of a certificate or license issued under this chapter, the board shall render a decision. The decision shall be in writing and contain findings of fact and conclusions of law.

Copies of the board's decision shall be delivered to the applicant, licensee, or certificate holder personally or by certified mail. The board's decision shall be considered final on the date personal delivery of the decision is made or the date the decision is mailed.

An individual may appeal a decision by the board in accordance with the procedure specified in Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.

September 13, 2010 Latest Legislation: House Bill 215 - 128th General Assembly

A notice of opportunity for a hearing issued by the state dental board pursuant to section 119.07 of the Revised Code and the name of the hearing referee or examiner the board assigns to a hearing pursuant to section 4715.037 of the Revised Code are public records under section 149.43 of the Revised Code.

July 1, 1993 Latest Legislation: House Bill 152 - 120th General Assembly

Before entering upon the discharge of the duties of his office, the secretary of the state dental board shall give a bond to the state in the sum of two thousand dollars conditioned for the faithful discharge of the duties of his office , the premium for such bond to be paid in the same manner as other expenses of the board. Such bond, with the approval of the board and oath of office indorsed thereon, shall be deposited with the secretary of state and kept in his office. Such board may employ such assistants, inspectors, investigators, and clerical help as it deems necessary to enforce sections 4715.01 to 4715.35 of the Revised Code, the expense thereof to be charged and paid as other expenditures of the board. All receipts of the board, from any source, shall be deposited in the state treasury to the credit of the occupational licensing and regulatory fund. The board shall make an annual report as of the thirty-first day of December of the year preceding, of its proceedings and the items of its receipts and disbursements to the governor on or before the first day of February.

June 29, 1988 Latest Legislation: House Bill 526 - 117th General Assembly

The prosecuting attorney of a county, or the village solicitor or city director of law of a municipal corporation, wherein a violation of this chapter allegedly occurs, shall, when so requested by the state dental board, take charge of and conduct the prosecution.

In addition to any other remedy provided in this chapter, the state dental board may request the attorney general, or the prosecuting attorney of any county where a person is practicing dentistry or dental hygiene without a license or certificate from the board to apply to the court of common pleas of the county where the unauthorized practice occurs for any injunction to restrain such practice. The court shall grant injunctive relief upon a showing that the respondent named in the petition is practicing dentistry or dental hygiene without a valid license or exemption from licensure granted pursuant to this chapter.

September 13, 2010 Latest Legislation: House Bill 215 - 128th General Assembly

Each member of the state dental board shall receive an amount fixed pursuant to division (J) of section 124.15 of the Revised Code for each day actually employed in the discharge of the official duties of the member, and the necessary expenses of the member. The secretary and vice-secretary shall be reimbursed for necessary expenses incurred in the discharge of the official duties of the secretary and vice-secretary, respectively. All vouchers of the board shall be approved by the board president or executive secretary, or both, as authorized by the board.

November 14, 1969 Latest Legislation: House Bill 737 - 108th General Assembly

The state dental board may affiliate with the American association of dental examiners, as an active member, and pay regular annual dues to said association and may send a delegate to the meetings of the said association; such delegate shall receive the compensation provided in section 4715.06 of the Revised Code.

October 1, 1953 Latest Legislation: House Bill 1 - 100th General Assembly

The state dental board shall have an official seal and shall keep a record of its proceedings, a register of persons licensed as dentists, and a register of licenses by it revoked. At reasonable times, its records shall be open to public inspection, and it shall keep on file all examination papers for a period of ninety days after each examination. A transcript of an entry in such records, certified by the secretary under the seal of the board, shall be evidence of the facts therein stated.

December 29, 2023 Latest Legislation: Senate Bill 131 - 134th General Assembly

(A) No person shall practice dentistry without a current license from the state dental board. No person shall practice dentistry while the person's license is under suspension by the state dental board.

(B) No dentist shall use the services of any person not licensed to practice dentistry in this state, or the services of any partnership, corporation, or association, to construct, alter, repair, or duplicate any denture, plate, bridge, splint, or orthodontic or prosthetic appliance, without first furnishing the unlicensed person, partnership, corporation, or association with a written work authorization on forms prescribed by the state dental board.

The unlicensed person, partnership, corporation, or association shall retain the original work authorization, and the dentist shall retain a duplicate copy of the work authorization, for two years from its date. Work authorizations required by this section shall be open for inspection during the two-year period by the state dental board, its authorized agent, or the prosecuting attorney of a county or the director of law of a municipal corporation wherein the work authorizations are located.

(C) If the person, partnership, association, or corporation receiving a written authorization from a licensed dentist engages another person, firm, or corporation, referred to in this division as "subcontractor," to perform some of the services relative to the work authorization, the person shall furnish a written sub-work authorization with respect thereto on forms prescribed by the state dental board.

The subcontractor shall retain the sub-work authorization and the issuer thereof shall retain a duplicate copy, attached to the work authorization received from the licensed dentist, for inspection by the state dental board or its duly authorized agents, for a period of two years in both cases.

(D) No unlicensed person, partnership, association, or corporation shall perform any service described in division (B) of this section without a written work authorization from a licensed dentist. Provided, that if a written work authorization is demanded from a licensed dentist who fails or refuses to furnish it for any reason, the unlicensed person, partnership, association, or corporation shall not, in such event, be subject to the enforcement provisions of section 4715.05 or the penal provisions of section 4715.99 of the Revised Code.

(E) No dentist shall employ or use conscious sedation unless the dentist possesses a valid permit issued by the state dental board authorizing the dentist to do so.

(F) No dentist shall employ or use general anesthesia unless the dentist possesses a valid permit issued by the state dental board authorizing the dentist to do so.

(G) Division (A) of this section does not apply to a nonresident person who meets both of the following conditions:

(1) The person holds a license in good standing to practice dentistry issued by another state.

(2) The person is practicing as a volunteer without remuneration during a charitable event that lasts not more than seven days.

When a nonresident person meets the conditions of this division, the person shall be deemed to hold, for the course of the charitable event, a license to practice dentistry from the state dental board and shall be subject to the provisions of this chapter authorizing the board to take disciplinary action against a license holder. Not less than seven calendar days before the first day of the charitable event, the person or the event's organizer shall notify the board of the person's intent to engage in the practice of dentistry at the event. During the course of the charitable event, the person's scope of practice is limited to the procedures that a dentist licensed under this chapter is authorized to perform unless the person's scope of practice in the other state is more restrictive than in this state. If the latter is the case, the person's scope of practice is limited to the procedures that a dentist in the other state may perform. Chapter 4796. of the Revised Code does not apply to this division.

Last updated December 29, 2023 at 5:33 AM

December 29, 2023 Latest Legislation: Senate Bill 131 - 134th General Assembly

(A) As used in this section, "accredited dental college" means a dental college accredited by the commission on dental accreditation or a dental college that has educational standards recognized by the commission on dental accreditation and is approved by the state dental board.

(B) Each person who desires to practice dentistry in this state shall file a written application for a license with the secretary of the state dental board. Except as provided in division (F) of this section, each application shall be on a form prescribed by the board and verified by oath. Each applicant shall furnish satisfactory proof to the board that the applicant has met the requirements of divisions (C) and (D) of this section, and if the applicant is a graduate of an unaccredited dental college located outside the United States, division (E) of this section.

(C) To be granted a license to practice dentistry, an applicant must meet all of the following requirements:

(1) Be at least eighteen years of age;

(2) Be a graduate of an accredited dental college or of a dental college located outside the United States who meets the standards adopted under section 4715.11 of the Revised Code;

(3) Have passed parts I and II of the examination given by the national board of dental examiners;

(4) Have passed a written jurisprudence examination administered by the state dental board under division (E)(2) of section 4715.03 of the Revised Code;

(5) Pay the fee required by division (A)(1) of section 4715.13 of the Revised Code.

(D) To be granted a license to practice dentistry, an applicant must meet any one of the following requirements:

(1) Have taken an examination administered by any of the following regional testing agencies and received a passing score on the examination as determined by the administering agency: the central regional dental testing service, inc., northeast regional board of dental examiners, inc., the commission on dental competency assessments, the southern regional dental testing agency, inc., the council of interstate testing agencies, inc., or the western regional examining board;

(2) Have taken an examination administered by the state dental board and received a passing score as established by the board;

(3) Have completed a dental residency program accredited or approved by the commission on dental accreditation and administered by an accredited dental college or hospital.

(E) To be granted a license to practice dentistry, a graduate of an unaccredited dental college located outside the United States must meet both of the following requirements:

(1) Have taken a basic science and laboratory examination consistent with rules adopted under section 4715.11 of the Revised Code and received a passing score as established by the board;

(2) Have had sufficient clinical training in an accredited institution to reasonably assure a level of competency equal to that of graduates of accredited dental colleges, as determined by the board.

(F) The board shall grant a license to practice dentistry in accordance with Chapter 4796. of the Revised Code to an applicant if either of the following applies:

(1) The applicant holds a license to practice dentistry in another state.

(2) The applicant has satisfactory work experience, a government certification, or a private certification as described in that chapter in the practice of dentistry in a state that does not issue that license.

Last updated December 29, 2023 at 6:22 AM

October 9, 2021 Latest Legislation: House Bill 263 - 133rd General Assembly

(A) As used in this section, "license" and "applicant for an initial license" have the same meanings as in section 4776.01 of the Revised Code.

(B) In addition to any other eligibility requirement set forth in this chapter, each applicant for an initial license issued pursuant to section 4715.12, 4715.16, 4715.21, or 4715.27 of the Revised Code shall comply with sections 4776.01 to 4776.04 of the Revised Code. The state dental board shall not grant a license to an applicant for an initial license issued pursuant to section 4715.12, 4715.16, 4715.21, or 4715.27 of the Revised Code unless the applicant complies with sections 4776.01 to 4776.04 of the Revised Code.

Last updated October 9, 2021 at 5:05 AM

March 20, 2019 Latest Legislation: Senate Bill 259 - 132nd General Assembly

In the state dental board's implementation of section 4715.10 of the Revised Code, all of the following apply:

(A) The board shall adopt rules establishing standards that must be met by graduates of unaccredited dental colleges located outside the United States. The standards must reasonably assure that the graduates have received a level of education and training equal to that provided by accredited dental colleges.

(B) The board shall adopt rules governing the basic sciences and laboratory examination required by division (E)(1) of section 4715.10 of the Revised Code.

October 29, 2003 Latest Legislation: Senate Bill 51 - 125th General Assembly

If an applicant passes the examination required by section 4715.10 of the Revised Code, the applicant shall receive a license from the state dental board attested by its seal and signed by the president and secretary, which shall be conclusive evidence of the applicant's right to practice dentistry. If the loss of a license is satisfactorily shown, a duplicate thereof shall be issued by the board.

If an applicant fails the examination required by section 4715.10 of the Revised Code, the applicant may apply for re-examination at a subsequent regular or special examination meeting of the state dental board. No applicant shall be admitted to more than two examinations without first presenting satisfactory proof that the applicant has successfully completed such refresher courses in an accredited dental college as the state dental board may prescribe.

April 6, 2023 Latest Legislation: House Bill 509 - 134th General Assembly

(A) Applicants for licenses to practice dentistry or for a general anesthesia permit or a conscious sedation permit shall pay to the secretary of the state dental board the following fees:

(1) For license to practice dentistry, two hundred sixty-seven dollars if issued in an odd-numbered year or four hundred fifty-four dollars if issued in an even-numbered year, except that beginning January 1, 2025, the fee shall be four hundred fifty-four dollars regardless of the year in which the license is issued;

(2) For duplicate license, to be granted upon proof of loss of the original, twenty dollars;

(3) For a general anesthesia permit, one hundred twenty-seven dollars;

(4) For a conscious sedation permit, one hundred twenty-seven dollars.

(B) Forty dollars of each fee collected under division (A)(1) of this section for a license issued in an even-numbered year and twenty dollars of each fee collected under division (A)(1) of this section in an odd-numbered year shall be paid to the dentist loan repayment fund established under section 3702.95 of the Revised Code, except that beginning January 1, 2025, the amount paid shall be forty dollars.

(C) In the case of a person who applies for a license to practice dentistry by taking an examination administered by the state dental board, both of the following apply:

(1) The fee in division (A)(1) of this section may be refunded to an applicant who is unavoidably prevented from attending the examination, or the applicant may be examined at the next regular or special meeting of the board without an additional fee.

(2) An applicant who fails the first examination may be re-examined at the next regular or special meeting of the board without an additional fee.

Last updated March 22, 2023 at 11:34 AM

December 16, 2020 Latest Legislation: House Bill 203 - 133rd General Assembly

(A)(1) Each person who is licensed to practice dentistry in Ohio shall, on or before the first day of January of each even-numbered year, register with the state dental board. The registration shall be made on a form prescribed by the board and furnished by the secretary, shall include the licensee's name, address, license number, and such other reasonable information as the board may consider necessary, and shall include payment of a biennial registration fee of three hundred twelve dollars. If the licensee is a mobile dental facility operator as defined in section 4715.70 of the Revised Code, the licensee shall so specify on the form and include any other information the board considers necessary to monitor compliance with sections 4715.71 and 4715.72 of the Revised Code. Subject to division (C) of this section, a registration shall be in effect for the two-year period beginning on the first day of January of the even-numbered year and ending on the last day of December of the following odd-numbered year, and shall be renewed in accordance with the standard renewal procedure of sections 4745.01 to 4745.03 of the Revised Code.

(2)(a) Except as provided in division (A)(2)(b) of this section, in the case of a licensee seeking registration who prescribes or personally furnishes opioid analgesics or benzodiazepines, as defined in section 3719.01 of the Revised Code, the licensee shall certify to the board whether the licensee has been granted access to the drug database established and maintained by the state board of pharmacy pursuant to section 4729.75 of the Revised Code.

(b) The requirement in division (A)(2)(a) of this section does not apply if any of the following is the case:

(i) The state board of pharmacy notifies the state dental board pursuant to section 4729.861 of the Revised Code that the licensee has been restricted from obtaining further information from the drug database.

(ii) The state board of pharmacy no longer maintains the drug database.

(iii) The licensee does not practice dentistry in this state.

(3) If a licensee certifies to the state dental board that the licensee has been granted access to the drug database and the board finds through an audit or other means that the licensee has not been granted access, the board may take action under section 4715.30 of the Revised Code.

(B) A licensed dentist who desires to temporarily retire from practice and who has given the board notice in writing to that effect shall be granted such a retirement, provided only that at that time all previous registration fees and additional costs of reinstatement have been paid.

(C) Not later than the thirty-first day of January of an even-numbered year, the board shall send a notice by certified mail to a dentist who fails to renew a license in accordance with division (A) of this section. The notice shall state all of the following:

(1) That the board has not received the registration form and fee described in that division;

(2) That the license shall remain valid and in good standing until the first day of April following the last day of December of the odd-numbered year in which the dentist was scheduled to renew if the dentist remains in compliance with all other applicable provisions of this chapter and any rule adopted under it;

(3) That the license may be renewed until the first day of April following the last day of December of the odd-numbered year in which the dentist was scheduled to renew by the payment of the biennial registration fee and an additional fee of one hundred twenty-seven dollars to cover the cost of late renewal;

(4) That unless the board receives the registration form and fee before the first day of April following the last day of December of the odd-numbered year in which the dentist was scheduled to renew, the board may, on or after the relevant first day of April, initiate disciplinary action against the dentist pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code;

(5) That a dentist whose license has been suspended as a result of disciplinary action initiated pursuant to division (C)(4) of this section may be reinstated by the payment of the biennial registration fee and an additional fee of three hundred eighty-one dollars to cover the cost of reinstatement.

(D) Each dentist licensed to practice, whether a resident or not, shall notify the secretary in writing or electronically of any change in the dentist's office address or employment within ten days after such change has taken place. On the first day of July of every even-numbered year, the secretary shall issue a printed roster of the names and addresses so registered.

(E) Forty dollars of each biennial registration fee shall be paid to the dentist loan repayment fund created under section 3702.95 of the Revised Code.

Last updated March 21, 2023 at 11:10 AM

April 6, 2023 Latest Legislation: House Bill 509 - 134th General Assembly

(A) Each licensed dentist shall complete biennially not less than thirty hours of continuing dental education, which may include, but is not limited to, attendance at lectures, study clubs, college and postgraduate courses, or scientific sessions of conventions, research, graduate study, teaching, service as a clinician, or correspondence courses. Continuing dental education programs include, but are not limited to, programs that address any of the following:

(1) Competency in treating patients who are medically compromised or who experience medical emergencies during the course of dental treatment;

(2) Knowledge of pharmaceutical products and the protocol of the proper use of medications;

(3) Competency to diagnose oral pathology;

(4) Awareness of currently accepted methods of infection control;

(5) Basic medical and scientific subjects including, but not limited to, biology, physiology, pathology, biochemistry, and pharmacology;

(6) Clinical and technological subjects including, but not limited to, clinical techniques and procedures, materials, and equipment;

(7) Subjects pertinent to health and safety.

Dentists shall earn continuing education credits at the rate of one-half credit for each twenty-five to thirty contact minutes of instruction and one credit hour for each fifty to sixty contact minutes of instruction.

(B) Programs meeting the general requirements of division (A) of this section may be developed and offered to dentists by any of the following agencies or organizations:

(1) National, state, district, or local dental associations affiliated with the American dental association or national dental association;

(2) Accredited dental colleges or schools;

(3) Other organizations, schools, or agencies approved by the state dental board.

(C) Each licensed dentist shall submit to the board at the time of biennial registration pursuant to section 4715.14 of the Revised Code a sworn affidavit, on a form acceptable to the state dental board, attesting that the dentist has completed continuing education programs in compliance with this section and listing the date, location, sponsor, subject matter, and hours completed of the programs.

A licensed dentist shall retain in the dentist's records for a period of at least three years such receipts, vouchers, or certificates as may be necessary to document completion of continuing education programs. With cause, the board may request such documentation from licensed dentists, and the board may request such documentation from licensed dentists selected at random without cause.

(D) The board may excuse licensed dentists, as a group or as individuals, from all or any part of the requirements of this section because of an unusual circumstance, emergency, or special hardship.

(E) The board shall notify a dentist who fails to submit the affidavit required by division (C) of this section of both of the following:

(1) That the board has not received the affidavit;

(2) That unless the board receives the affidavit before the first day of April following the last day of December by which the dentist was required to submit the affidavit, the board may, on or after the relevant first day of April, initiate disciplinary action against the dentist pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.

Last updated March 22, 2023 at 11:35 AM

December 29, 2023 Latest Legislation: Senate Bill 131 - 134th General Assembly

(A) Upon payment of a fee of thirteen dollars, the state dental board may without examination issue a limited resident's license to any person who is a graduate of a dental college, is authorized to practice in another country or qualified to take the regular licensing examination in this state, and furnishes the board satisfactory proof of having been appointed a dental resident at an accredited dental college in this state or at an accredited program of a hospital in this state, but has not yet been licensed as a dentist by the board. Any person receiving a limited resident's license may practice dentistry only in connection with programs operated by the dental college or hospital at which the person is appointed as a resident as designated on the person's limited resident's license, and only under the direction of a licensed dentist who is a member of the dental staff of the college or hospital or a dentist holding a current limited teaching license issued under division (B) of this section, and only on bona fide patients of such programs. The holder of a limited resident's license may be disciplined by the board pursuant to section 4715.30 of the Revised Code. The board shall issue a limited resident's license in accordance with Chapter 4796. of the Revised Code to an applicant if either of the following applies:

(1) The applicant holds a license to practice dentistry in another state.

(2) The applicant has satisfactory work experience, a government certification, or a private certification as described in that chapter in the practice of dentistry in a state that does not issue that license.

(B) Upon payment of one hundred twenty-seven dollars and upon application endorsed by an accredited dental college in this state, the board may without examination issue a limited teaching license to a dentist who is a resident of a state other than Ohio and who is a graduate of a dental college, is authorized to practice dentistry in another state or country, and has full-time appointment to the faculty of the endorsing dental college. A limited teaching license is subject to annual renewal in accordance with the standard renewal procedure of Chapter 4745. of the Revised Code, and automatically expires upon termination of the full-time faculty appointment. A person holding a limited teaching license may practice dentistry only in connection with programs operated by the endorsing dental college. The board may discipline the holder of a limited teaching license pursuant to section 4715.30 of the Revised Code.

Chapter 4796. of the Revised Code does not apply to a limited teaching license issued under this division.

(C)(1) As used in this division:

(a) "Continuing dental education practicum" or "practicum" means a course of instruction, approved by the American dental association, Ohio dental association, or academy of general dentistry, that is designed to improve the clinical skills of a dentist by requiring the dentist to participate in clinical exercises on patients.

(b) "Director" means the person responsible for the operation of a practicum.

(2) Upon payment of one hundred twenty-seven dollars and application endorsed by the director of a continuing dental education practicum, the board shall, without examination, issue a temporary limited continuing education license to a resident of a state other than Ohio who is licensed to practice dentistry in such state and is in good standing, is a graduate of an accredited dental college, and is registered to participate in the endorsing practicum. The determination of whether a dentist is in good standing shall be made by the board.

A dentist holding a temporary limited continuing education license may practice dentistry only on residents of the state in which the dentist is permanently licensed or on patients referred by a dentist licensed pursuant to section 4715.12 of the Revised Code to an instructing dentist licensed pursuant to that section, and only while participating in a required clinical exercise of the endorsing practicum on the premises of the facility where the practicum is being conducted.

Practice under a temporary limited continuing education license shall be under the direct supervision and full professional responsibility of an instructing dentist licensed pursuant to section 4715.12 of the Revised Code, shall be limited to the performance of those procedures necessary to complete the endorsing practicum, and shall not exceed thirty days of actual patient treatment in any year.

(3) A director of a continuing dental education practicum who endorses an application for a temporary limited continuing education license shall, prior to making the endorsement, notify the state dental board in writing of the identity of the sponsors and the faculty of the practicum and the dates and locations at which it will be offered. The notice shall also include a brief description of the course of instruction. The board may prohibit a continuing dental education practicum from endorsing applications for temporary limited continuing education licenses if the board determines that the practicum is engaged in activities that constitute a threat to public health and safety or do not constitute bona fide continuing dental education, or that the practicum permits activities which otherwise violate this chapter. Any continuing dental education practicum prohibited from endorsing applications may request an adjudication pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.

A temporary limited continuing education license shall be valid only when the dentist is participating in the endorsing continuing dental education practicum and shall expire at the end of one year. If the dentist fails to complete the endorsing practicum in one year, the board may, upon the dentist's application and payment of a fee of ninety-four dollars, renew the temporary limited continuing education license for a consecutive one-year period. Only two renewals may be granted. The holder of a temporary limited continuing education license may be disciplined by the board pursuant to section 4715.30 of the Revised Code.

Chapter 4796. of the Revised Code does not apply to a temporary limited continuing education license issued under this division.

(D) The board shall act either to approve or to deny any application for a limited license pursuant to division (A), (B), or (C) of this section not later than sixty days of the date the board receives the application.

Last updated December 29, 2023 at 6:39 AM

October 1, 1953 Latest Legislation: House Bill 1 - 100th General Assembly

Each person who engages in the practice of dentistry shall keep displayed in a conspicuous place in the office wherein he practices the majority of his time, and in such manner as to be easily seen and read, the license granted him by the state dental board.

April 12, 2021 Latest Legislation: Senate Bill 276 - 133rd General Assembly

(A) No person shall practice or offer to practice dentistry or dental surgery under the name of any company, association, corporation, or other entity other than one of the following:

(1) A corporation-for-profit formed under Chapter 1701. of the Revised Code;

(2) A professional association established under Chapter 1785. of the Revised Code;

(3) A limited liability company formed under Chapter 1705. or 1706. of the Revised Code;

(4) A federally qualified health center, federally qualified health center look-alike, free clinic, nonprofit shelter or health care facility, or nonprofit clinic that provides health care services or dental services to indigent and uninsured persons.

(B) Any person practicing or offering to practice dentistry or dental surgery shall do so under the person's name, the name of a professional association, professional partnership, corporation-for-profit, or limited liability company that includes the person's name, or the name of an organization specified in division (A)(4) of this section.

(C) As used in this section:

(1) "Federally qualified health center" and "federally qualified health center look-alike" have the same meanings as in section 3701.047 of the Revised Code.

(2) "Free clinic" and "nonprofit shelter or health care facility" have the same meanings as in section 3701.071 of the Revised Code.

(3) "Nonprofit clinic" has the same meaning as in section 3715.87 of the Revised Code.

(4) "Indigent and uninsured person" has the same meaning as in section 2305.234 of the Revised Code.

Last updated September 10, 2021 at 11:49 AM

October 1, 1953 Latest Legislation: House Bill 1 - 100th General Assembly

No person, being a manager, proprietor, operator, or conductor of a place for performing dental operations, shall employ a person who is not a licensed dentist to perform dental operations or shall permit such person to practice dentistry in his office. No person shall practice dentistry under a false name, assume a title, append or prefix to his name, letters which falsely represent him as having a degree from a legal dental college, make use of the words "dental college" or "school" or equivalent words, when not lawfully authorized to do so, impersonate another at an examination held by the state dental board, or knowingly make a false application or a false representation in connection with such examination.

March 22, 2019 Latest Legislation: House Bill 541 - 132nd General Assembly

No person shall practice as a dental hygienist except as follows:

(A) A licensed dentist ;

(B) One who has obtained a license from the state dental board to practice as a dental hygienist ;

(C) One who holds in good standing a license from another state to practice as a dental hygienist and is practicing as a volunteer without remuneration during a charitable event that lasts not more than seven days.

In the case of a person described in division (C) of this section, the person shall be deemed to hold, for the course of the charitable event, a license to practice as a dental hygienist from the state dental board and shall be subject to the provisions of this chapter authorizing the board to take disciplinary action against a license holder. Not less than seven calendar days before the first day of the charitable event, the person or the event's organizer shall notify the board of the person's intent to engage in the practice of dental hygiene at the event. During the course of the charitable event, the person's scope of practice is limited to the procedures that a dental hygienist licensed under this chapter is authorized to perform unless the person's scope of practice in the other state is more restrictive than in this state. If the latter is the case, the person's scope of practice is limited to the procedures that a dental hygienist in the other state may perform.

April 6, 2023 Latest Legislation: House Bill 509 - 134th General Assembly

(A) Each person who desires to practice as a dental hygienist shall file with the secretary of the state dental board a written application for a license, under oath, upon the form prescribed. Such applicant shall furnish satisfactory proof of being at least eighteen years of age. An applicant shall present a diploma or certificate of graduation from an accredited dental hygiene school and shall pay the examination fee of one hundred twenty dollars if the license is issued in an odd-numbered year or one hundred eighty-four dollars if issued in an even-numbered year, except that beginning January 1, 2025, the fee shall be one hundred eighty-four dollars regardless of the year in which the license is issued. Those passing such examination as the board prescribes relating to dental hygiene shall receive a certificate of registration entitling them to practice. If an applicant fails to pass the first examination the applicant may apply for a re-examination at the next regular or special examination meeting of the board.

(B) No applicant shall be admitted to more than two examinations without first presenting satisfactory proof that the applicant has successfully completed such refresher courses in an accredited dental hygiene school as the state dental board may prescribe.

(C) An accredited dental hygiene school shall be one accredited by the American dental association commission on dental accreditation or whose educational standards are recognized by the American dental association commission on dental accreditation and approved by the state dental board.

Last updated March 22, 2023 at 11:36 AM

April 12, 2021 Latest Legislation: Senate Bill 276 - 133rd General Assembly

(A)(1) This section applies only when a licensed dental hygienist is not practicing in accordance with either of the following:

(a) A permit issued pursuant to section 4715.363 of the Revised Code authorizing practice under the oral health access supervision of a dentist;

(b) Section 4715.431 of the Revised Code.

(2) As used in this section, "health care facility" means either of the following:

(a) A hospital registered under section 3701.07 of the Revised Code;

(b) A home, as defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code.

(B) A licensed dental hygienist shall practice under the supervision, order, control, and full responsibility of a dentist licensed under this chapter. A dental hygienist may practice in a dental office, public or private school, health care facility, dispensary, or public institution. Except as provided in divisions (C) to (E) of this section, a dental hygienist may not provide dental hygiene services to a patient when the supervising dentist is not physically present at the location where the dental hygienist is practicing.

(C) A dental hygienist may provide, for not more than fifteen consecutive business days, dental hygiene services to a patient when the supervising dentist is not physically present at the location where the services are provided if all of the following requirements are met:

(1) The dental hygienist has at least one year and a minimum of one thousand five hundred hours of experience in the practice of dental hygiene.

(2) The dental hygienist has successfully completed a course approved by the state dental board in the identification and prevention of potential medical emergencies.

(3) The dental hygienist does not perform, while the supervising dentist is absent from the location, procedures while the patient is anesthetized, definitive root planing, definitive subgingival curettage, or other procedures identified in rules the state dental board adopts.

(4) The supervising dentist has evaluated the dental hygienist's skills.

(5) The supervising dentist examined the patient not more than one year prior to the date the dental hygienist provides the dental hygiene services to the patient.

(6) The dental hygienist complies with written protocols or written standing orders that the supervising dentist establishes, including those established for emergencies.

(7) The supervising dentist completed and evaluated a medical and dental history of the patient not more than one year prior to the date the dental hygienist provides dental hygiene services to the patient and, except when the dental hygiene services are provided in a health care facility, the supervising dentist determines that the patient is in a medically stable condition.

(8) If the dental hygiene services are provided in a health care facility, a doctor of medicine and surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery licensed under Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code or a registered nurse licensed under Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code is present in the health care facility when the services are provided.

(9) In advance of the appointment for dental hygiene services, the patient is notified that the supervising dentist will be absent from the location and that the dental hygienist cannot diagnose the patient's dental health care status.

(10) The dental hygienist is employed by, or under contract with, one of the following:

(a) The supervising dentist;

(b) A dentist licensed under this chapter who is one of the following:

(i) The employer of the supervising dentist;

(ii) A shareholder in a professional association formed under Chapter 1785. of the Revised Code of which the supervising dentist is a shareholder;

(iii) A member or manager of a limited liability company formed under Chapter 1705. or 1706. of the Revised Code of which the supervising dentist is a member or manager;

(iv) A shareholder in a corporation formed under division (B) of section 1701.03 of the Revised Code of which the supervising dentist is a shareholder;

(v) A partner or employee of a partnership or a limited liability partnership formed under Chapter 1775. or 1776. of the Revised Code of which the supervising dentist is a partner or employee.

(c) A government entity that employs the dental hygienist to provide dental hygiene services in a public school or in connection with other programs the government entity administers.

(D) A dental hygienist may provide dental hygiene services to a patient when the supervising dentist is not physically present at the location where the services are provided if the services are provided as part of a dental hygiene program that is approved by the state dental board and all of the following requirements are met:

(1) The program is operated through a school district board of education or the governing board of an educational service center; the board of health of a city or general health district or the authority having the duties of a board of health under section 3709.05 of the Revised Code; a national, state, district, or local dental association; or any other public or private entity recognized by the state dental board.

(2) The supervising dentist is employed by or a volunteer for, and the patients are referred by, the entity through which the program is operated.

(3)(a) Except as provided in division (D)(3)(b) of this section, the services are performed after examination and diagnosis by the dentist and in accordance with the dentist's written treatment plan.

(b) The requirement in division (D)(3)(a) of this section does not apply when the only services to be provided by the dental hygienist are the placement of pit and fissure sealants and the application of fluoride varnish.

(E) A dental hygienist may do any of the following when the supervising dentist is not physically present at the location where the services are provided, regardless of whether the dentist has examined the patient, if the dental hygienist is employed by, or under contract with, the supervising dentist or another person or government entity specified in division (C)(10)(b) or (c) of this section:

(1) Apply fluoride varnish;

(2) Apply desensitizing agents, excluding silver diamine fluoride;

(3) Apply disclosing solutions;

(4) Apply pit and fissure sealants;

(5) Recement temporary crowns or recement crowns with temporary cement;

(6) Conduct caries susceptibility testing;

(7) Provide instruction on oral hygiene home care, including the use of toothbrushes and dental floss;

(8) Discuss general nonmedical nutrition information for the purpose of maintaining good oral health.

As used in division (E)(8) of this section, "general nonmedical nutrition information" means information on the following: principles of good nutrition and food preparation, food to be included in the normal daily diet, the essential nutrients needed by the body, recommended amounts of the essential nutrients, the actions of nutrients on the body, the effects of deficiencies or excesses of nutrients, or food and supplements that are good sources of essential nutrients.

(F) No person shall do either of the following:

(1) Practice dental hygiene in a manner that is separate or otherwise independent from the dental practice of a supervising dentist;

(2) Establish or maintain an office or practice that is primarily devoted to the provision of dental hygiene services.

(G) The state dental board shall adopt rules under division (C) of section 4715.03 of the Revised Code identifying procedures a dental hygienist may not perform when practicing in the absence of the supervising dentist pursuant to division (C) or (D) of this section.

Last updated September 10, 2021 at 11:54 AM

March 20, 2019 Latest Legislation: Senate Bill 259 - 132nd General Assembly

The practice of a dental hygienist shall consist of those prophylactic, preventive, and other procedures that licensed dentists are authorized by this chapter and rules of the dental board to assign only to licensed dental hygienists or to qualified personnel under section 4715.39 of the Revised Code.

A licensed dentist may assign to a dental hygienist intraoral tasks that do not require the professional competence or skill of the licensed dentist and that are authorized by board rule. Such performance of intraoral tasks by a dental hygienist shall be under supervision and full responsibility of the licensed dentist, and at no time shall more than four dental hygienists be practicing clinical hygiene under the supervision of the same dentist. The foregoing shall not be construed as authorizing the assignment of diagnosis, treatment planning and prescription (including prescriptions for drugs and medicaments or authorizations for restorative, prosthodontic, or orthodontic appliances); or, except when done in conjunction with the removal of calcarious deposits, dental cement, or accretions on the crowns and roots of teeth, surgical procedures on hard and soft tissues within the oral cavity or any other intraoral procedure that contributes to or results in an irremediable alteration of the oral anatomy; or the making of final impressions from which casts are made to construct any dental restoration.

A licensed dentist may assign to a dental hygienist the application of silver diamine flouride if the dentist has examined the patient and diagnosed the need for such treatment and the dental hygienist has completed a course approved in accordance with rules adopted under division (B) of section 4715.436 of the Revised Code.

The state dental board shall issue rules defining the procedures that may be performed by licensed dental hygienists engaged in school health activities or employed by public agencies.

August 31, 2010 Latest Legislation: House Bill 190 - 128th General Assembly

(A) As used in this section, "direct supervision" means a dentist licensed under this chapter is present, for purposes of consultation and direction, at the location where a dental hygienist performs the administration of local anesthesia to a patient. "Direct supervision" does not mean that the dentist must observe the administration of local anesthesia to a patient.

(B) Under the direct supervision of a dentist, a dental hygienist may administer intraoral block and infiltration local anesthesia to a patient if the dental hygienist is in compliance with division (D) of this section and either of the following is the case:

(1) The dental hygienist has met both of the following requirements:

(a) Successfully completed a course in the administration of local anesthesia approved by the state dental board and offered by a dental or dental hygiene program that is accredited by the commission on dental accreditation of the American dental association;

(b) Within eighteen months of completion of the anesthesia course, successfully passed a state or regional written examination on local anesthesia approved by the board.

(2) The dental hygienist is authorized to administer local anesthesia by another state's licensing authority with jurisdiction over the practice of dental hygiene and both of the following conditions are met:

(a) The dental hygienist was required by the licensing authority of the other state to complete, and the dental hygienist successfully completed, a course or instruction as a requirement to be authorized to administer local anesthesia.

(b) Either of the following applies:

(i) The required hours and content of the course or instruction described in division (B)(2)(a) of this section are substantially equivalent, as determined by the board, to the required hours and content of the course described in division (C) of this section.

(ii) The board determines that the required hours and content of the course or instruction described in division (B)(2)(a) of this section are not substantially equivalent to the required hours and content of the course described in division (C) of this section, but the dental hygienist submits evidence satisfactory to the board that the dental hygienist obtained, within the forty-eight months immediately preceding the date that the dental hygienist applied under section 4715.21 of the Revised Code for a license to practice as a dental hygienist, twenty-four consecutive months of experience in the administration of local anesthesia in the other state where the dental hygienist is authorized to administer local anesthesia.

(C) To be approved by the board, the local anesthesia administration course described in division (B)(1)(a) of this section must contain not less than fifteen hours of didactic instruction and not less than fourteen hours of clinical experience and include instruction on each of the following subjects:

(1) Theory of pain control;

(2) Selection of pain control modalities;

(5) Pharmacology of local anesthetics;

(6) Pharmacology of vasoconstrictors;

(7) Psychological aspects of pain control;

(8) Systemic complications;

(9) Techniques of maxillary and mandibular anesthesia taught by a dentist or other qualified instructor;

(10) Infection control;

(11) Local anesthesia medical emergencies.

(D) A dental hygienist may administer local anesthesia only if the dental hygienist has obtained current certification to perform basic cardiac life-support procedures as required by section 4715.251 of the Revised Code.

September 29, 2017 Latest Legislation: House Bill 49 - 132nd General Assembly

(A) Each person who is licensed to practice as a dental hygienist in Ohio shall, on or before the first day of January of each even-numbered year, register with the state dental board, unless the person is temporarily retired pursuant to section 4715.241 of the Revised Code. The registration shall be made on a form prescribed by the board and furnished by the secretary, shall include the licensee's name, address, license number, and such other reasonable information as the board may consider necessary, and shall include payment of a biennial registration fee of one hundred forty-four dollars. This fee shall be paid to the treasurer of state. All such registrations shall be in effect for the two-year period beginning on the first day of January of each even-numbered year and ending on the last day of December of the following odd-numbered year, and shall be renewed in accordance with the standard renewal procedure of sections 4745.01 to 4745.03 of the Revised Code. The failure of a licensee to renew registration in accordance with this section shall result in the automatic suspension of the licensee's license to practice as a dental hygienist, unless the licensee is temporarily retired pursuant to section 4715.241 of the Revised Code.

(B) Any dental hygienist whose license has been automatically suspended under this section may be reinstated on application to the board on a form prescribed by the board for licensure reinstatement and payment of the biennial registration fee and in addition thereto thirty-nine dollars to cover the costs of reinstatement.

(C) The license of a dental hygienist shall be exhibited in a conspicuous place in the room in which the dental hygienist practices. Each dental hygienist licensed to practice, whether a resident or not, shall notify the secretary in writing or electronically of any change in the dental hygienist's office address or employment within ten days after the change takes place.

(D) Ten dollars of each biennial registration fee collected under division (A) or (B) of this section shall be paid to the dental hygienist loan repayment fund established under section 3702.967 of the Revised Code.

Last updated March 22, 2023 at 11:37 AM

August 31, 2010 Latest Legislation: House Bill 190 - 128th General Assembly

(A) As used in this section and sections 4715.242 and 4715.25 of the Revised Code, "registration period" means the two-year period during which a dental hygienist's registration is in effect under section 4715.24 of the Revised Code.

(B) A dental hygienist seeking to retire temporarily from the practice of dental hygiene shall provide written notice of that intent to the state dental board. Except as provided in division (C) of this section, the board shall grant temporary retirement if the dental hygienist has paid the registration fee required by section 4715.24 of the Revised Code for the registration period that includes the day immediately before the day that the temporary retirement is to begin. The license of a dental hygienist who is granted temporary retirement shall be inactive.

(C) The board may deny temporary retirement to a dental hygienist who is, at the time that the board denies the temporary retirement, the subject of a disciplinary action initiated by the board under section 4715.30 of the Revised Code.

August 31, 2010 Latest Legislation: House Bill 190 - 128th General Assembly

(A) A dental hygienist who is temporarily retired pursuant to section 4715.241 of the Revised Code may submit a written request to the state dental board at any time for reinstatement of the dental hygienist's license. The board shall reinstate the license if the dental hygienist does both of the following:

(1) Pays the biennial registration fee established under section 4715.24 of the Revised Code for the period that includes the day on which the temporary retirement is to cease;

(2) Provides the board satisfactory evidence that the dental hygienist, during the two-year period immediately preceding the date that the dental hygienist submitted the written request for license reinstatement, completed a minimum of twenty-four hours of continuing dental hygiene education in accordance with division (B) of this section.

(B) The completion of continuing dental hygiene education required under division (A)(2) of this section is subject to division (D) of section 4715.25 of the Revised Code. The continuing education programs may be developed and offered to dental hygienists by any of the agencies or organizations described in division (C) of section 4715.25 of the Revised Code. The board may excuse dental hygienists, as a group or as individuals, from all or any part of the requirements of division (A)(2) of this section because of an unusual circumstance, emergency, or special hardship.

(C) The state dental board shall register each dental hygienist whose license is reinstated under this section. The registration expires at the end of the registration period during which the license is reinstated.

April 6, 2023 Latest Legislation: House Bill 509 - 134th General Assembly

(A) Every person licensed to practice as a dental hygienist and required to register with the state dental board shall certify to the board at the time of applying for a renewal of registration that in the two-year period preceding the registration period for which renewal is sought the registrant completed a minimum of twenty hours of continuing dental hygiene education. Certification shall be made upon the application for registration prescribed by the board pursuant to section 4715.24 of the Revised Code.

(B)(1) The board shall apply toward the satisfaction of a registrant's continuing dental hygiene education requirement any of the following courses that the registrant completed:

(a) The basic life-support training course required by section 4715.251 of the Revised Code;

(b) Any course required by statute or rule of the board for registration;

(c) Any course required by statute or rule of the board as a condition of performing a particular function;

(d) Any other course that the board determines acceptable.

(2) In the case of a registrant whose license was reinstated under section 4715.242 of the Revised Code, the board shall apply toward the satisfaction of the registrant's continuing dental hygiene education requirement any course that the board applied toward the continuing dental hygiene education requirement for reinstatement of the license if the course was completed during the two-year period immediately preceding the registration period for which renewal is sought.

(C) Continuing education programs may be developed and offered to dental hygienists by any of the following agencies or organizations:

(1) National, state, district, or local dental hygienists' associations affiliated with the American dental hygienists' association;

(2) National, state, district, or local dental associations affiliated with the American dental association or national dental association;

(3) Accredited dental hygiene colleges or schools;

(4) Accredited dental colleges or schools;

(5) Other organizations, schools, paraprofessional programs, or agencies approved by the state dental board.

(D) A licensed dental hygienist shall retain in the dental hygienist's records for a period of at least four years such receipts, vouchers, or certificates as may be necessary to document completion of continuing education programs. With cause, the board may request such documentation from licensed dental hygienists, and the board may request such documentation from licensed dental hygienists at random without cause.

(E) The board may excuse licensed dental hygienists, as a group or as individuals, from all or any part of the requirements of this section because of an unusual circumstance, emergency, or special hardship.

(F) Failure to comply with the requirements of this section constitutes a failure to renew registration pursuant to section 4715.24 of the Revised Code.

Last updated March 22, 2023 at 11:37 AM

September 29, 2007 Latest Legislation: House Bill 119 - 127th General Assembly

Each person licensed to practice as a dental hygienist and required to register with the state dental board shall, each time the person applies for renewal of registration beginning in 1995, be currently certified to perform basic life-support procedures by having successfully completed a basic life-support training course certified by the American red cross, the American heart association, or, if determined equivalent by the board, the American safety and health institute. An applicant for renewal of registration shall certify on the application for renewal of registration prescribed by the board under section 4715.24 of the Revised Code that the applicant possesses the certification required by this section.

The board shall, not later than one hundred eighty days after the effective date of this amendment, determine whether basic life-support training certified by the American safety and health institute meets national standards. The board shall compare the training certified by the institute with the training certified by the American red cross and the American heart association and the training of instructors certified by the institute to the training of instructors certified by the American red cross and the American heart association.

If the board determines that the training certified by the American safety and health institute meets national standards and is equivalent to the training certified by the American red cross and the American heart association, the board shall accept training certified by the American safety and health institute in fulfillment of the requirements of this section.

October 1, 1953 Latest Legislation: House Bill 1 - 100th General Assembly

The secretary of the state dental board shall keep a record of all dental hygienists, together with location and supervising dentist.

December 29, 2023 Latest Legislation: Senate Bill 131 - 134th General Assembly

(A)(1) Except as provided in division (A)(2) of this section, the state dental board may issue a license to an applicant who furnishes satisfactory proof of being at least eighteen years of age and who demonstrates, to the satisfaction of the board, knowledge of the laws, regulations, and rules governing the practice of a dental hygienist; who proves, to the satisfaction of the board, intent to practice as a dental hygienist in this state; who is a graduate from an accredited school of dental hygiene and who holds a license by examination from a similar dental board, and who passes an examination as prescribed by the board relating to dental hygiene.

(2) The board shall issue a license to practice as a dental hygienist in accordance with Chapter 4796. of the Revised Code to an applicant if either of the following applies:

(a) The applicant holds a license to practice as a dental hygienist in another state.

(b) The applicant has satisfactory work experience, a government certification, or a private certification as described in that chapter in the practice of a dental hygienist in a state that does not issue that license.

(B) Upon payment of seventy-three dollars and upon application endorsed by an accredited dental hygiene school in this state, the state dental board may without examination issue a teacher's certificate to a dental hygienist, authorized to practice in another state or country. A teacher's certificate shall be subject to annual renewal in accordance with the standard renewal procedure of sections 4745.01 to 4745.03 of the Revised Code, and shall not be construed as authorizing anything other than teaching or demonstrating the skills of a dental hygienist in the educational programs of the accredited dental hygiene school which endorsed the application.

Chapter 4796. of the Revised Code does not apply to a teacher's certificate issued under this division.

Last updated January 16, 2024 at 2:17 PM

January 1, 2025 Latest Legislation: Senate Bill 40 - 135th General Assembly

The Dentist and Dental Hygienist Compact is hereby ratified, enacted into law, and entered into by the state of Ohio as a party to the compact with any other state that has legally joined the compact as follows:

DENTIST AND DENTAL HYGIENIST COMPACT

SECTION 1. TITLE AND PURPOSE

This statute shall be known and cited as the Dentist and Dental Hygienist Compact. The purposes of this Compact are to facilitate the interstate practice of dentistry and dental hygiene and improve public access to dentistry and dental hygiene services by providing Dentists and Dental Hygienists licensed in a Participating State the ability to practice in Participating States in which they are not licensed. The Compact does this by establishing a pathway for a Dentists and Dental Hygienists licensed in a Participating State to obtain a Compact Privilege that authorizes them to practice in another Participating State in which they are not licensed. The Compact enables Participating States to protect the public health and safety with respect to the practice of such Dentists and Dental Hygienists, through the State's authority to regulate the practice of dentistry and dental hygiene in the State. The Compact:

A. Enables Dentists and Dental Hygienists who qualify for a Compact Privilege to practice in other Participating States without satisfying burdensome and duplicative requirements associated with securing a License to practice in those States;

B. Promotes mobility and addresses workforce shortages through each Participating State's acceptance of a Compact Privilege to practice in that State;

C. Increases public access to qualified, licensed Dentists and Dental Hygienists by creating a responsible, streamlined pathway for Licensees to practice in Participating States.

D. Enhances the ability of Participating States to protect the public's health and safety;

E. Does not interfere with licensure requirements established by a Participating State;

F. Facilitates the sharing of licensure and disciplinary information among Participating States;

G. Requires Dentists and Dental Hygienists who practice in a Participating State pursuant to a Compact Privilege to practice within the Scope of Practice authorized in that State;

H. Extends the authority of a Participating State to regulate the practice of dentistry and dental hygiene within its borders to Dentists and Dental Hygienists who practice in the State through a Compact Privilege;

I. Promotes the cooperation of Participating State in regulating the practice of dentistry and dental hygiene within those States;

J. Facilitates the relocation of military members and their spouses who are licensed to practice dentistry or dental hygiene;

SECTION 2. DEFINITIONS

As used in this Compact, unless the context requires otherwise, the following definitions shall apply:

A. "Active Military Member" means any individual in full-time duty status in the armed forces of the United States including members of the National Guard and Reserve.

B. "Adverse Action" means disciplinary action or encumbrance imposed on a License or Compact Privilege by a State Licensing Authority.

C. "Alternative Program" means a non-disciplinary monitoring or practice remediation process applicable to a Dentist or Dental Hygienist approved by a State Licensing Authority of a Participating State in which the Dentist or Dental Hygienist is licensed. This includes, but is not limited to, programs to which Licensees with substance abuse or addiction issues are referred in lieu of Adverse Action.

D. "Clinical Assessment" means examination or process, required for licensure as a Dentist or Dental Hygienist as applicable, that provides evidence of clinical competence in dentistry or dental hygiene.

E. "Commissioner" means the individual appointed by a Participating State to serve as the member of the Commission for that Participating State.

F. "Compact" means this Dentist and Dental Hygienist Compact.

G. "Compact Privilege" means the authorization granted by a Remote State to allow a Licensee from a Participating State to practice as a Dentist or Dental Hygienist in a Remote State.

H. "Continuing Professional Development" means a requirement, as a condition of License renewal to provide evidence of successful participation in educational or professional activities relevant to practice or area of work.

I. "Criminal Background Check" means the submission of fingerprints or other biometric-based information for a License applicant for the purpose of obtaining that applicant's criminal history record information, as defined in 28 C.F.R. § 20.3(d) from the Federal Bureau of Investigation and the State's criminal history record repository as defined in 28 C.F.R. § 20.3(f).

J. "Data System" means the Commission's repository of information about Licensees, including but not limited to examination, licensure, investigative, Compact Privilege, Adverse Action, and Alternative Program.

K. "Dental Hygienist" means an individual who is licensed by a State Licensing Authority to practice dental hygiene.

L. "Dentist" means an individual who is licensed by a State Licensing Authority to practice dentistry.

M. "Dentist and Dental Hygienist Compact Commission" or "Commission" means a joint government agency established by this Compact comprised of each State that has enacted the Compact and a national administrative body comprised of a Commissioner from each State that has enacted the Compact.

N. "Encumbered License" means a License that a State Licensing Authority has limited in any way other than through an Alternative Program.

O. "Executive Board" means the Chair, Vice Chair, Secretary and Treasurer and any other Commissioners as may be determined by Commission Rule or bylaw.

P. "Jurisprudence Requirement" means the assessment of an individual's knowledge of the laws and Rules governing the practice of dentistry or dental hygiene, as applicable, in a State.

Q. "License" means current authorization by a State, other than authorization pursuant to a Compact Privilege, or other privilege, for an individual to practice as a Dentist or Dental Hygienist in that State.

R. "Licensee" means an individual who holds an unrestricted License from a Participating State to practice as a Dentist or Dental Hygienist in that State.

S. "Model Compact" the model for the Dentist and Dental Hygienist Compact on file with the Council of State Governments or other entity as designated by the Commission.

T. "Participating State" means a State that has enacted the Compact and been admitted to the Commission in accordance with the provisions herein and Commission Rules.

U. "Qualifying License" means a License that is not an Encumbered License issued by a Participating State to practice dentistry or dental hygiene.

V. "Remote State" means a Participating State where a Licensee who is not licensed as a Dentist or Dental Hygienist is exercising or seeking to exercise the Compact Privilege.

W. "Rule" means a regulation promulgated by an entity that has the force of law.

X. "Scope of Practice" means the procedures, actions, and processes a Dentist or Dental Hygienist licensed in a State is permitted to undertake in that State and the circumstances under which the Licensee is permitted to undertake those procedures, actions and processes. Such procedures, actions and processes and the circumstances under which they may be undertaken may be established through means, including, but not limited to, statute, regulations, case law, and other processes available to the State Licensing Authority or other government agency.

Y. "Significant Investigative Information" means information, records, and documents received or generated by a State Licensing Authority pursuant to an investigation for which a determination has been made that there is probable cause to believe that the Licensee has violated a statute or regulation that is considered more than a minor infraction for which the State Licensing Authority could pursue Adverse Action against the Licensee.

Z. "State" means any state, commonwealth, district, or territory of the United States of America that regulates the practices of dentistry and dental hygiene.

AA. "State Licensing Authority" means an agency or other entity of a State that is responsible for the licensing and regulation of Dentists or Dental Hygienists.

SECTION 3. STATE PARTICIPATION IN THE COMPACT

A. In order to join the Compact and thereafter continue as a Participating State, a State must:

1. Enact a compact that is not materially different from the Model Compact as determined in accordance with Commission Rules;

2. Participate fully in the Commission's Data System;

3. Have a mechanism in place for receiving and investigating complaints about its Licensees and License applicants;

4. Notify the Commission, in compliance with the terms of the Compact and Commission Rules, of any Adverse Action or the availability of Significant Investigative Information regarding a Licensee and License applicant;

5. Fully implement a Criminal Background Check requirement, within a time frame established by Commission Rule, by receiving the results of a qualifying Criminal Background Check;

6. Comply with the Commission Rules applicable to a Participating State;

7. Accept the National Board Examinations of the Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations or another examination accepted by Commission Rule as a licensure examination;

8. Accept for licensure that applicants for a Dentist License graduate from a predoctoral dental education program accredited by the Commission on Dental Accreditation or another accrediting agency recognized by the United States Department of Education for the accreditation of dentistry and dental hygiene education programs, leading to the Doctor of Dental Surgery (D.D.S.) or Doctor of Dental Medicine (D.M.D.) degree;

9. Accept for licensure that applicants for a Dental Hygienist License graduate from a dental hygiene education program accredited by the Commission on Dental Accreditation or another accrediting agency recognized by the United States Department of Education for the accreditation of dentistry and dental hygiene education programs;

10. Require for licensure that applicants successfully complete a Clinical Assessment;

11. Have Continuing Professional Development requirements as a condition for License renewal; and

12. Pay a participation fee to the Commission as established by Commission Rule.

B. Providing alternative pathways for an individual to obtain an unrestricted License does not disqualify a State from participating in the Compact.

C. When conducting a Criminal Background Check the State Licensing Authority shall:

1. Consider that information in making a licensure decision;

2. Maintain documentation of completion of the Criminal Background Check and background check information to the extent allowed by State and federal law; and

3. Report to the Commission whether it has completed the Criminal Background Check and whether the individual was granted or denied a License.

D. A Licensee of a Participating State who has a Qualifying License in that State and does not hold an Encumbered License in any other Participating State, shall be issued a Compact Privilege in a Remote State in accordance with the terms of the Compact and Commission Rules. If a Remote State has a Jurisprudence Requirement a Compact Privilege will not be issued to the Licensee unless the Licensee has satisfied the Jurisprudence Requirement.

SECTION 4. COMPACT PRIVILEGE

A. To obtain and exercise the Compact Privilege under the terms and provisions of the Compact, the Licensee shall:

1. Have a Qualifying License as a Dentist or Dental Hygienist in a Participating State;

2. Be eligible for a Compact Privilege in any Remote State in accordance with D, G and H of this section;

3. Submit to an application process whenever the Licensee is seeking a Compact Privilege;

4. Pay any applicable Commission and Remote State fees for a Compact Privilege in the Remote State;

5. Meet any Jurisprudence Requirement established by a Remote State in which the Licensee is seeking a Compact Privilege;

6. Have passed a National Board Examination of the Joint Commission on National Dental Examinations or another examination accepted by Commission Rule;

7. For a Dentist, have graduated from a predoctoral dental education program accredited by the Commission on Dental Accreditation or another accrediting agency recognized by the United States Department of Education for the accreditation of dentistry and dental hygiene education programs, leading to the Doctor of Dental Surgery (D.D.S.) or Doctor of Dental Medicine (D.M.D.) degree;

8. For a Dental Hygienist, have graduated from a dental hygiene education program accredited by the Commission on Dental Accreditation or another accrediting agency recognized by the United States Department of Education for the accreditation of dentistry and dental hygiene education programs;

9. Have successfully completed a Clinical Assessment for licensure;

10. Report to the Commission Adverse Action taken by any non-Participating State when applying for a Compact Privilege and, otherwise, within thirty (30) days from the date the Adverse Action is taken;

11. Report to the Commission when applying for a Compact Privilege the address of the Licensee's primary residence and thereafter immediately report to the Commission any change in the address of the Licensee's primary residence; and

12. Consent to accept service of process by mail at the Licensee's primary residence on record with the Commission with respect to any action brought against the Licensee by the Commission or a Participating State, and consent to accept service of a subpoena by mail at the Licensee's primary residence on record with the Commission with respect to any action brought or investigation conducted by the Commission or a Participating State.

B. The Licensee must comply with the requirements of subsection A of this section to maintain the Compact Privilege in the Remote State. If those requirements are met, the Compact Privilege will continue as long as the Licensee maintains a Qualifying License in the State through which the Licensee applied for the Compact Privilege and pays any applicable Compact Privilege renewal fees.

C. A Licensee providing dentistry or dental hygiene in a Remote State under the Compact Privilege shall function within the Scope of Practice authorized by the Remote State for a Dentist or Dental Hygienist licensed in that State.

D. A Licensee providing dentistry or dental hygiene pursuant to a Compact Privilege in a Remote State is subject to that State's regulatory authority. A Remote State may, in accordance with due process and that State's laws, by Adverse Action revoke or remove a Licensee's Compact Privilege in the Remote State for a specific period of time and impose fines or take any other necessary actions to protect the health and safety of its citizens. If a Remote State imposes an Adverse Action against a Compact Privilege that limits the Compact Privilege, that Adverse Action applies to all Compact Privileges in all Remote States. A Licensee whose Compact Privilege in a Remote State is removed for a specified period of time is not eligible for a Compact Privilege in any other Remote State until the specific time for removal of the Compact Privilege has passed and all encumbrance requirements are satisfied.

E. If a License in a Participating State is an Encumbered License, the Licensee shall lose the Compact Privilege in a Remote State and shall not be eligible for a Compact Privilege in any Remote State until the License is no longer encumbered.

F. Once an Encumbered License in a Participating State is restored to good standing, the Licensee must meet the requirements of subsection A of this section to obtain a Compact Privilege in a Remote State.

G. If a Licensee's Compact Privilege in a Remote State is removed by the Remote State, the individual shall lose or be ineligible for the Compact Privilege in any Remote State until the following occur:

1. The specific period of time for which the Compact Privilege was removed has ended; and

2. All conditions for removal of the Compact Privilege have been satisfied.

H. Once the requirements of subsection G of this section have been met, the Licensee must meet the requirements in subsection A of this section to obtain a Compact Privilege in a Remote State.

SECTION 5. ACTIVE MILITARY MEMBER OR THEIR SPOUSES

An Active Military Member and their spouse shall not be required to pay to the Commission for a Compact Privilege the fee otherwise charged by the Commission. If a Remote State chooses to charge a fee for a Compact Privilege, it may choose to charge a reduced fee or no fee to an Active Military Member and their spouse for a Compact Privilege.

SECTION 6. ADVERSE ACTIONS

A. A Participating State in which a Licensee is licensed shall have exclusive authority to impose Adverse Action against the Qualifying License issued by that Participating State.

B. A Participating State may take Adverse Action based on the Significant Investigative Information of a Remote State, so long as the Participating State follows its own procedures for imposing Adverse Action.

C. Nothing in this Compact shall override a Participating State's decision that participation in an Alternative Program may be used in lieu of Adverse Action and that such participation shall remain non-public if required by the Participating State's laws. Participating States must require Licensees who enter any Alternative Program in lieu of discipline to agree not to practice pursuant to a Compact Privilege in any other Participating State during the term of the Alternative Program without prior authorization from such other Participating State.

D. Any Participating State in which a Licensee is applying to practice or is practicing pursuant to a Compact Privilege may investigate actual or alleged violations of the statutes and regulations authorizing the practice of dentistry or dental hygiene in any other Participating State in which the Dentist or Dental Hygienist holds a License or Compact Privilege.

E. A Remote State shall have the authority to:

1. Take Adverse Actions as set forth in Section 4.D against a Licensee's Compact Privilege in the State;

2. In furtherance of its rights and responsibilities under the Compact and the Commission's Rules issue subpoenas for both hearings and investigations that require the attendance and testimony of witnesses, and the production of evidence. Subpoenas issued by a State Licensing Authority in a Participating State for the attendance and testimony of witnesses, or the production of evidence from another Participating State, shall be enforced in the latter State by any court of competent jurisdiction, according to the practice and procedure of that court applicable to subpoenas issued in proceedings pending before it. The issuing authority shall pay any witness fees, travel expenses, mileage, and other fees required by the service statutes of the State where the witnesses or evidence are located; and

3. If otherwise permitted by State law, recover from the Licensee the costs of investigations and disposition of cases resulting from any Adverse Action taken against that Licensee.

F. Joint Investigations

1. In addition to the authority granted to a Participating State by its Dentist or Dental Hygienist licensure act or other applicable State law, a Participating State may jointly investigate Licensees with other Participating States.

2. Participating States shall share any Significant Investigative Information, litigation, or compliance materials in furtherance of any joint or individual investigation initiated under the Compact.

G. Authority to Continue Investigation

1. After a Licensee's Compact Privilege in a Remote State is terminated, the Remote State may continue an investigation of the Licensee that began when the Licensee had a Compact Privilege in that Remote State.

2. If the investigation yields what would be Significant Investigative Information had the Licensee continued to have a Compact Privilege in that Remote State, the Remote State shall report the presence of such information to the Data System as required by Section 8.B.6 as if it was Significant Investigative Information.

SECTION 7. ESTABLISHMENT AND OPERATION OF THE COMMISSION.

A. The Compact Participating States hereby create and establish a joint government agency whose membership consists of all Participating States that have enacted the Compact. The Commission is an instrumentality of the Participating States acting jointly and not an instrumentality of any one State. The Commission shall come into existence on or after the effective date of the Compact as set forth in Section 11A.

B. Participation, Voting, and Meetings

1. Each Participating State shall have and be limited to one (1) Commissioner selected by that Participating State's State Licensing Authority or, if the State has more than one State Licensing Authority, selected collectively by the State Licensing Authorities.

2. The Commissioner shall be a member or designee of such Authority or Authorities.

3. The Commission may by Rule or bylaw establish a term of office for Commissioners and may by Rule or bylaw establish term limits.

4. The Commission may recommend to a State Licensing Authority or Authorities, as applicable, removal or suspension of an individual as the State's Commissioner.

5. A Participating State's State Licensing Authority, or Authorities, as applicable, shall fill any vacancy of its Commissioner on the Commission within sixty (60) days of the vacancy.

6. Each Commissioner shall be entitled to one vote on all matters that are voted upon by the Commission.

7. The Commission shall meet at least once during each calendar year. Additional meetings may be held as set forth in the bylaws. The Commission may meet by telecommunication, video conference or other similar electronic means.

C. The Commission shall have the following powers:

1. Establish the fiscal year of the Commission;

2. Establish a code of conduct and conflict of interest policies;

3. Adopt Rules and bylaws;

4. Maintain its financial records in accordance with the bylaws;

5. Meet and take such actions as are consistent with the provisions of this Compact, the Commission's Rules, and the bylaws;

6. Initiate and conclude legal proceedings or actions in the name of the Commission, provided that the standing of any State Licensing Authority to sue or be sued under applicable law shall not be affected;

7. Maintain and certify records and information provided to a Participating State as the authenticated business records of the Commission, and designate a person to do so on the Commission's behalf;

8. Purchase and maintain insurance and bonds;

9. Borrow, accept, or contract for services of personnel, including, but not limited to, employees of a Participating State;

10. Conduct an annual financial review;

11. Hire employees, elect or appoint officers, fix compensation, define duties, grant such individuals appropriate authority to carry out the purposes of the Compact, and establish the Commission's personnel policies and programs relating to conflicts of interest, qualifications of personnel, and other related personnel matters;

12. As set forth in the Commission Rules, charge a fee to a Licensee for the grant of a Compact Privilege in a Remote State and thereafter, as may be established by Commission Rule, charge the Licensee a Compact Privilege renewal fee for each renewal period in which that Licensee exercises or intends to exercise the Compact Privilege in that Remote State. Nothing herein shall be construed to prevent a Remote State from charging a Licensee a fee for a Compact Privilege or renewals of a Compact Privilege, or a fee for the Jurisprudence Requirement if the Remote State imposes such a requirement for the grant of a Compact Privilege;

13. Accept any and all appropriate gifts, donations, grants of money, other sources of revenue, equipment, supplies, materials, and services, and receive, utilize, and dispose of the same; provided that at all times the Commission shall avoid any appearance of impropriety and/or conflict of interest;

14. Lease, purchase, retain, own, hold, improve, or use any property, real, personal, or mixed, or any undivided interest therein;

15. Sell, convey, mortgage, pledge, lease, exchange, abandon, or otherwise dispose of any property real, personal, or mixed;

16. Establish a budget and make expenditures;

17. Borrow money;

18. Appoint committees, including standing committees, which may be composed of members, State regulators, State legislators or their representatives, and consumer representatives, and such other interested persons as may be designated in this Compact and the bylaws;

19. Provide and receive information from, and cooperate with, law enforcement agencies;

20. Elect a Chair, Vice Chair, Secretary and Treasurer and such other officers of the Commission as provided in the Commission's bylaws;

21. Establish and elect an Executive Board;

22. Adopt and provide to the Participating States an annual report;

23. Determine whether a State's enacted compact is materially different from the Model Compact language such that the State would not qualify for participation in the Compact; and

24. Perform such other functions as may be necessary or appropriate to achieve the purposes of this Compact.

D. Meetings of the Commission

1. All meetings of the Commission that are not closed pursuant to this subsection shall be open to the public. Notice of public meetings shall be posted on the Commission's website at least thirty (30) days prior to the public meeting.

2. Notwithstanding subsection D.1 of this section, the Commission may convene an emergency public meeting by providing at least twenty-four (24) hours prior notice on the Commission's website, and any other means as provided in the Commission's Rules, for any of the reasons it may dispense with notice of proposed rulemaking under Section 9.L. The Commission's legal counsel shall certify that one of the reasons justifying an emergency public meeting has been met.

3. Notice of all Commission meetings shall provide the time, date, and location of the meeting, and if the meeting is to be held or accessible via telecommunication, video conference, or other electronic means, the notice shall include the mechanism for access to the meeting through such means.

4. The Commission may convene in a closed, non-public meeting for the Commission to receive legal advice or to discuss:

a. Non-compliance of a Participating State with its obligations under the Compact;

b. The employment, compensation, discipline or other matters, practices or procedures related to specific employees or other matters related to the Commission's internal personnel practices and procedures;

c. Current or threatened discipline of a Licensee or Compact Privilege holder by the Commission or by a Participating State's Licensing Authority;

d. Current, threatened, or reasonably anticipated litigation;

e. Negotiation of contracts for the purchase, lease, or sale of goods, services, or real estate;

f. Accusing any person of a crime or formally censuring any person;

g. Trade secrets or commercial or financial information that is privileged or confidential;

h. Information of a personal nature where disclosure would constitute a clearly unwarranted invasion of personal privacy;

i. Investigative records compiled for law enforcement purposes;

j. Information related to any investigative reports prepared by or on behalf of or for use of the Commission or other committee charged with responsibility of investigation or determination of compliance issues pursuant to the Compact;

l. Matters specifically exempted from disclosure to the public by federal or Participating State law; and

m. Other matters as promulgated by the Commission by Rule.

5. If a meeting, or portion of a meeting, is closed, the presiding officer shall state that the meeting will be closed and reference each relevant exempting provision, and such reference shall be recorded in the minutes.

6. The Commission shall keep minutes that fully and clearly describe all matters discussed in a meeting and shall provide a full and accurate summary of actions taken, and the reasons therefore, including a description of the views expressed. All documents considered in connection with an action shall be identified in such minutes. All minutes and documents of a closed meeting shall remain under seal, subject to release only by a majority vote of the Commission or order of a court of competent jurisdiction.

E. Financing of the Commission

1. The Commission shall pay, or provide for the payment of, the reasonable expenses of its establishment, organization, and ongoing activities.

2. The Commission may accept any and all appropriate sources of revenue, donations, and grants of money, equipment, supplies, materials, and services.

3. The Commission may levy on and collect an annual assessment from each Participating State and impose fees on Licensees of Participating States when a Compact Privilege is granted, to cover the cost of the operations and activities of the Commission and its staff, which must be in a total amount sufficient to cover its annual budget as approved each fiscal year for which sufficient revenue is not provided by other sources. The aggregate annual assessment amount for Participating States shall be allocated based upon a formula that the Commission shall promulgate by Rule.

4. The Commission shall not incur obligations of any kind prior to securing the funds adequate to meet the same; nor shall the Commission pledge the credit of any Participating State, except by and with the authority of the Participating State.

5. The Commission shall keep accurate accounts of all receipts and disbursements. The receipts and disbursements of the Commission shall be subject to the financial review and accounting procedures established under its bylaws. All receipts and disbursements of funds handled by the Commission shall be subject to an annual financial review by a certified or licensed public accountant, and the report of the financial review shall be included in and become part of the annual report of the Commission.

F. The Executive Board

1. The Executive Board shall have the power to act on behalf of the Commission according to the terms of this Compact. The powers, duties, and responsibilities of the Executive Board shall include:

a. Overseeing the day-to-day activities of the administration of the Compact including compliance with the provisions of the Compact, the Commission's Rules and bylaws;

b. Recommending to the Commission changes to the Rules or bylaws, changes to this Compact legislation, fees charged to Compact Participating States, fees charged to Licensees, and other fees;

c. Ensuring Compact administration services are appropriately provided, including by contract;

d. Preparing and recommending the budget;

e. Maintaining financial records on behalf of the Commission;

f. Monitoring Compact compliance of Participating States and providing compliance reports to the Commission;

g. Establishing additional committees as necessary;

h. Exercising the powers and duties of the Commission during the interim between Commission meetings, except for adopting or amending Rules, adopting or amending bylaws, and exercising any other powers and duties expressly reserved to the Commission by Rule or bylaw; and

i. Other duties as provided in the Rules or bylaws of the Commission.

2. The Executive Board shall be composed of up to seven (7) members:

a. The Chair, Vice Chair, Secretary and Treasurer of the Commission and any other members of the Commission who serve on the Executive Board shall be voting members of the Executive Board; and

b. Other than the Chair, Vice Chair, Secretary, and Treasurer, the Commission may elect up to three (3) voting members from the current membership of the Commission.

3. The Commission may remove any member of the Executive Board as provided in the Commission's bylaws.

4. The Executive Board shall meet at least annually.

a. An Executive Board meeting at which it takes or intends to take formal action on a matter shall be open to the public, except that the Executive Board may meet in a closed, non-public session of a public meeting when dealing with any of the matters covered under subsection D.4.

b. The Executive Board shall give five (5) business days' notice of its public meetings, posted on its website and as it may otherwise determine to provide notice to persons with an interest in the public matters the Executive Board intends to address at those meetings.

5. The Executive Board may hold an emergency meeting when acting for the Commission to:

a. Meet an imminent threat to public health, safety, or welfare;

b. Prevent a loss of Commission or Participating State funds; or

c. Protect public health and safety.

G. Qualified Immunity, Defense, and Indemnification

1. The members, officers, executive director, employees and representatives of the Commission shall be immune from suit and liability, both personally and in their official capacity, for any claim for damage to or loss of property or personal injury or other civil liability caused by or arising out of any actual or alleged act, error, or omission that occurred, or that the person against whom the claim is made had a reasonable basis for believing occurred within the scope of Commission employment, duties or responsibilities; provided that nothing in this paragraph shall be construed to protect any such person from suit or liability for any damage, loss, injury, or liability caused by the intentional or willful or wanton misconduct of that person. The procurement of insurance of any type by the Commission shall not in any way compromise or limit the immunity granted hereunder.

2. The Commission shall defend any member, officer, executive director, employee, and representative of the Commission in any civil action seeking to impose liability arising out of any actual or alleged act, error, or omission that occurred within the scope of Commission employment, duties, or responsibilities, or as determined by the Commission that the person against whom the claim is made had a reasonable basis for believing occurred within the scope of Commission employment, duties, or responsibilities; provided that nothing herein shall be construed to prohibit that person from retaining their own counsel at their own expense; and provided further, that the actual or alleged act, error, or omission did not result from that person's intentional or willful or wanton misconduct.

3. Notwithstanding subsection G.1 of this section, should any member, officer, executive director, employee, or representative of the Commission be held liable for the amount of any settlement or judgment arising out of any actual or alleged act, error, or omission that occurred within the scope of that individual's employment, duties, or responsibilities for the Commission, or that the person to whom that individual is liable had a reasonable basis for believing occurred within the scope of the individual's employment, duties, or responsibilities for the Commission, the Commission shall indemnify and hold harmless such individual, provided that the actual or alleged act, error, or omission did not result from the intentional or willful or wanton misconduct of the individual.

4. Nothing herein shall be construed as a limitation on the liability of any Licensee for professional malpractice or misconduct, which shall be governed solely by any other applicable State laws.

5. Nothing in this Compact shall be interpreted to waive or otherwise abrogate a Participating State's state action immunity or state action affirmative defense with respect to antitrust claims under the Sherman Act, Clayton Act, or any other State or federal antitrust or anticompetitive law or regulation.

6. Nothing in this Compact shall be construed to be a waiver of sovereign immunity by the Participating States or by the Commission.

SECTION 8. DATA SYSTEM

A. The Commission shall provide for the development, maintenance, operation, and utilization of a coordinated database and reporting system containing licensure, Adverse Action, and the presence of Significant Investigative Information on all Licensees and applicants for a License in Participating States.

B. Notwithstanding any other provision of State law to the contrary, a Participating State shall submit a uniform data set to the Data System on all individuals to whom this Compact is applicable as required by the Rules of the Commission, including:

1. Identifying information;

2. Licensure data;

3. Adverse Actions against a Licensee, License applicant or Compact Privilege and information related thereto;

4. Non-confidential information related to Alternative Program participation, the beginning and ending dates of such participation, and other information related to such participation;

5. Any denial of an application for licensure, and the reason(s) for such denial, (excluding the reporting of any criminal history record information where prohibited by law);

6. The presence of Significant Investigative Information; and

7. Other information that may facilitate the administration of this Compact or the protection of the public, as determined by the Rules of the Commission.

C. The records and information provided to a Participating State pursuant to this Compact or through the Data System, when certified by the Commission or an agent thereof, shall constitute the authenticated business records of the Commission, and shall be entitled to any associated hearsay exception in any relevant judicial, quasi-judicial or administrative proceedings in a Participating State.

D. Significant Investigative Information pertaining to a Licensee in any Participating State will only be available to other Participating States.

E. It is the responsibility of the Participating States to monitor the database to determine whether Adverse Action has been taken against a Licensee or License applicant. Adverse Action information pertaining to a Licensee or License applicant in any Participating State will be available to any other Participating State.

F. Participating States contributing information to the Data System may designate information that may not be shared with the public without the express permission of the contributing State.

G. Any information submitted to the Data System that is subsequently expunged pursuant to federal law or the laws of the Participating State contributing the information shall be removed from the Data System.

SECTION 9. RULEMAKING

A. The Commission shall promulgate reasonable Rules in order to effectively and efficiently implement and administer the purposes and provisions of the Compact. A Commission Rule shall be invalid and have no force or effect only if a court of competent jurisdiction holds that the Rule is invalid because the Commission exercised its rulemaking authority in a manner that is beyond the scope and purposes of the Compact, or the powers granted hereunder, or based upon another applicable standard of review.

B. The Rules of the Commission shall have the force of law in each Participating State, provided however that where the Rules of the Commission conflict with the laws of the Participating State that establish the Participating State's Scope of Practice as held by a court of competent jurisdiction, the Rules of the Commission shall be ineffective in that State to the extent of the conflict.

C. The Commission shall exercise its Rulemaking powers pursuant to the criteria set forth in this section and the Rules adopted thereunder. Rules shall become binding as of the date specified by the Commission for each Rule.

D. If a majority of the legislatures of the Participating States rejects a Commission Rule or portion of a Commission Rule, by enactment of a statute or resolution in the same manner used to adopt the Compact, within four (4) years of the date of adoption of the Rule, then such Rule shall have no further force and effect in any Participating State or to any State applying to participate in the Compact.

E. Rules shall be adopted at a regular or special meeting of the Commission.

F. Prior to adoption of a proposed Rule, the Commission shall hold a public hearing and allow persons to provide oral and written comments, data, facts, opinions, and arguments.

G. Prior to adoption of a proposed Rule by the Commission, and at least thirty (30) days in advance of the meeting at which the Commission will hold a public hearing on the proposed Rule, the Commission shall provide a Notice of Proposed Rulemaking:

1. On the website of the Commission or other publicly accessible platform;

2. To persons who have requested notice of the Commission's notices of proposed rulemaking, and

3. In such other way(s) as the Commission may by Rule specify.

H. The Notice of Proposed Rulemaking shall include:

1. The time, date, and location of the public hearing at which the Commission will hear public comments on the proposed Rule and, if different, the time, date, and location of the meeting where the Commission will consider and vote on the proposed Rule;

2. If the hearing is held via telecommunication, video conference, or other electronic means, the Commission shall include the mechanism for access to the hearing in the Notice of Proposed Rulemaking;

3. The text of the proposed Rule and the reason therefor;

4. A request for comments on the proposed Rule from any interested person; and

5. The manner in which interested persons may submit written comments.

I. All hearings will be recorded. A copy of the recording and all written comments and documents received by the Commission in response to the proposed Rule shall be available to the public.

J. Nothing in this section shall be construed as requiring a separate hearing on each Commission Rule. Rules may be grouped for the convenience of the Commission at hearings required by this section.

K. The Commission shall, by majority vote of all Commissioners, take final action on the proposed Rule based on the rulemaking record.

1. The Commission may adopt changes to the proposed Rule provided the changes do not enlarge the original purpose of the proposed Rule.

2. The Commission shall provide an explanation of the reasons for substantive changes made to the proposed Rule as well as reasons for substantive changes not made that were recommended by commenters.

3. The Commission shall determine a reasonable effective date for the Rule. Except for an emergency as provided in subsection L, the effective date of the Rule shall be no sooner than thirty (30) days after the Commission issuing the notice that it adopted or amended the Rule.

L. Upon determination that an emergency exists, the Commission may consider and adopt an emergency Rule with 24 hours' notice, with opportunity to comment, provided that the usual rulemaking procedures provided in the Compact and in this section shall be retroactively applied to the Rule as soon as reasonably possible, in no event later than ninety (90) days after the effective date of the Rule. For the purposes of this provision, an emergency Rule is one that must be adopted immediately in order to:

1. Meet an imminent threat to public health, safety, or welfare;

2. Prevent a loss of Commission or Participating State funds;

3. Meet a deadline for the promulgation of a Rule that is established by federal law or rule; or

4. Protect public health and safety.

M. The Commission or an authorized committee of the Commission may direct revisions to a previously adopted Rule for purposes of correcting typographical errors, errors in format, errors in consistency, or grammatical errors. Public notice of any revisions shall be posted on the website of the Commission. The revision shall be subject to challenge by any person for a period of thirty (30) days after posting. The revision may be challenged only on grounds that the revision results in a material change to a Rule. A challenge shall be made in writing and delivered to the Commission prior to the end of the notice period. If no challenge is made, the revision will take effect without further action. If the revision is challenged, the revision may not take effect without the approval of the Commission.

N. No Participating State's rulemaking requirements shall apply under this Compact

SECTION 10. OVERSIGHT, DISPUTE RESOLUTION, AND ENFORCEMENT

1. The executive and judicial branches of State government in each Participating State shall enforce this Compact and take all actions necessary and appropriate to implement the Compact.

2. Venue is proper and judicial proceedings by or against the Commission shall be brought solely and exclusively in a court of competent jurisdiction where the principal office of the Commission is located. The Commission may waive venue and jurisdictional defenses to the extent it adopts or consents to participate in alternative dispute resolution proceedings. Nothing herein shall affect or limit the selection or propriety of venue in any action against a Licensee for professional malpractice, misconduct or any such similar matter.

3. The Commission shall be entitled to receive service of process in any proceeding regarding the enforcement or interpretation of the Compact or Commission Rule and shall have standing to intervene in such a proceeding for all purposes. Failure to provide the Commission service of process shall render a judgment or order void as to the Commission, this Compact, or promulgated Rules.

B. Default, Technical Assistance, and Termination

1. If the Commission determines that a Participating State has defaulted in the performance of its obligations or responsibilities under this Compact or the promulgated Rules, the Commission shall provide written notice to the defaulting State. The notice of default shall describe the default, the proposed means of curing the default, and any other action that the Commission may take, and shall offer training and specific technical assistance regarding the default.

2. The Commission shall provide a copy of the notice of default to the other Participating States.

C. If a State in default fails to cure the default, the defaulting State may be terminated from the Compact upon an affirmative vote of a majority of the Commissioners, and all rights, privileges and benefits conferred on that State by this Compact may be terminated on the effective date of termination. A cure of the default does not relieve the offending State of obligations or liabilities incurred during the period of default.

D. Termination of participation in the Compact shall be imposed only after all other means of securing compliance have been exhausted. Notice of intent to suspend or terminate shall be given by the Commission to the governor, the majority and minority leaders of the defaulting State's legislature, the defaulting State's State Licensing Authority or Authorities, as applicable, and each of the Participating States' State Licensing Authority or Authorities, as applicable.

E. A State that has been terminated is responsible for all assessments, obligations, and liabilities incurred through the effective date of termination, including obligations that extend beyond the effective date of termination.

F. Upon the termination of a State's participation in this Compact, that State shall immediately provide notice to all Licensees of the State, including Licensees of other Participating States issued a Compact Privilege to practice within that State, of such termination. The terminated State shall continue to recognize all Compact Privileges then in effect in that State for a minimum of one hundred eighty (180) days after the date of said notice of termination.

G. The Commission shall not bear any costs related to a State that is found to be in default or that has been terminated from the Compact, unless agreed upon in writing between the Commission and the defaulting State.

H. The defaulting State may appeal the action of the Commission by petitioning the U.S. District Court for the District of Columbia or the federal district where the Commission has its principal offices. The prevailing party shall be awarded all costs of such litigation, including reasonable attorney's fees.

I. Dispute Resolution

1. Upon request by a Participating State, the Commission shall attempt to resolve disputes related to the Compact that arise among Participating States and between Participating States and non-Participating States.

2. The Commission shall promulgate a Rule providing for both mediation and binding dispute resolution for disputes as appropriate.

1. The Commission, in the reasonable exercise of its discretion, shall enforce the provisions of this Compact and the Commission's Rules.

2. By majority vote, the Commission may initiate legal action against a Participating State in default in the United States District Court for the District of Columbia or the federal district where the Commission has its principal offices to enforce compliance with the provisions of the Compact and its promulgated Rules. The relief sought may include both injunctive relief and damages. In the event judicial enforcement is necessary, the prevailing party shall be awarded all costs of such litigation, including reasonable attorney's fees. The remedies herein shall not be the exclusive remedies of the Commission. The Commission may pursue any other remedies available under federal or the defaulting Participating State's law.

3. A Participating State may initiate legal action against the Commission in the U.S. District Court for the District of Columbia or the federal district where the Commission has its principal offices to enforce compliance with the provisions of the Compact and its promulgated Rules. The relief sought may include both injunctive relief and damages. In the event judicial enforcement is necessary, the prevailing party shall be awarded all costs of such litigation, including reasonable attorney's fees.

4. No individual or entity other than a Participating State may enforce this Compact against the Commission.

SECTION 11. EFFECTIVE DATE, WITHDRAWAL, AND AMENDMENT

A. The Compact shall come into effect on the date on which the Compact statute is enacted into law in the seventh Participating State.

1. On or after the effective date of the Compact, the Commission shall convene and review the enactment of each of the States that enacted the Compact prior to the Commission convening ("Charter Participating States") to determine if the statute enacted by each such Charter Participating State is materially different than the Model Compact.

a. A Charter Participating State whose enactment is found to be materially different from the Model Compact shall be entitled to the default process set forth in Section 10.

b. If any Participating State is later found to be in default, or is terminated or withdraws from the Compact, the Commission shall remain in existence and the Compact shall remain in effect even if the number of Participating States should be less than seven (7).

2. Participating States enacting the Compact subsequent to the Charter Participating States shall be subject to the process set forth in Section 7.C.23 to determine if their enactments are materially different from the Model Compact and whether they qualify for participation in the Compact.

3. All actions taken for the benefit of the Commission or in furtherance of the purposes of the administration of the Compact prior to the effective date of the Compact or the Commission coming into existence shall be considered to be actions of the Commission unless specifically repudiated by the Commission.

4. Any State that joins the Compact subsequent to the Commission's initial adoption of the Rules and bylaws shall be subject to the Commission's Rules and bylaws as they exist on the date on which the Compact becomes law in that State. Any Rule that has been previously adopted by the Commission shall have the full force and effect of law on the day the Compact becomes law in that State.

B. Any Participating State may withdraw from this Compact by enacting a statute repealing that State's enactment of the Compact.

1. A Participating State's withdrawal shall not take effect until one hundred eighty (180) days after enactment of the repealing statute.

2. Withdrawal shall not affect the continuing requirement of the withdrawing State's Licensing Authority or Authorities to comply with the investigative and Adverse Action reporting requirements of this Compact prior to the effective date of withdrawal.

3. Upon the enactment of a statute withdrawing from this Compact, the State shall immediately provide notice of such withdrawal to all Licensees within that State. Notwithstanding any subsequent statutory enactment to the contrary, such withdrawing State shall continue to recognize all Compact Privileges to practice within that State granted pursuant to this Compact for a minimum of one hundred eighty (180) days after the date of such notice of withdrawal.

C. Nothing contained in this Compact shall be construed to invalidate or prevent any licensure agreement or other cooperative arrangement between a Participating State and a non-Participating State that does not conflict with the provisions of this Compact.

D. This Compact may be amended by the Participating States. No amendment to this Compact shall become effective and binding upon any Participating State until it is enacted into the laws of all Participating States.

SECTION 12. CONSTRUCTION AND SEVERABILITY

A. This Compact and the Commission's rulemaking authority shall be liberally construed so as to effectuate the purposes, and the implementation and administration of the Compact. Provisions of the Compact expressly authorizing or requiring the promulgation of Rules shall not be construed to limit the Commission's rulemaking authority solely for those purposes.

B. The provisions of this Compact shall be severable and if any phrase, clause, sentence or provision of this Compact is held by a court of competent jurisdiction to be contrary to the constitution of any Participating State, a State seeking participation in the Compact, or of the United States, or the applicability thereof to any government, agency, person or circumstance is held to be unconstitutional by a court of competent jurisdiction, the validity of the remainder of this Compact and the applicability thereof to any other government, agency, person or circumstance shall not be affected thereby.

C. Notwithstanding subsection B of this section, the Commission may deny a State's participation in the Compact or, in accordance with the requirements of Section 10.B, terminate a Participating State's participation in the Compact, if it determines that a constitutional requirement of a Participating State is a material departure from the Compact. Otherwise, if this Compact shall be held to be contrary to the constitution of any Participating State, the Compact shall remain in full force and effect as to the remaining Participating States and in full force and effect as to the Participating State affected as to all severable matters.

SECTION 13. CONSISTENT EFFECT AND CONFLICT WITH OTHER STATE LAWS

A. Nothing herein shall prevent or inhibit the enforcement of any other law of a Participating State that is not inconsistent with the Compact.

B. Any laws, statutes, regulations, or other legal requirements in a Participating State in conflict with the Compact are superseded to the extent of the conflict.

C. All permissible agreements between the Commission and the Participating States are binding in accordance with their terms.

Last updated August 22, 2024 at 4:22 PM

January 1, 2025 Latest Legislation: Senate Bill 40 - 135th General Assembly

(A) Not later than sixty days after the "Dentist and Dental Hygienist Compact" is entered into under section 4715.271 of the Revised Code, the state dental board, in accordance with Section 7 of the compact, shall select one individual to serve as a commissioner to the dentist and dental hygienist compact commission created under the compact. The board shall fill a vacancy in this position not later than sixty days after the vacancy occurs.

(B) The board may establish a fee for a licensee from a compact state to apply for compact privilege or renew compact privilege. The board may reduce or waive this fee for an active-duty military individual or that individual's spouse in accordance with Section 5 of the compact.

(C) On the date that is five years after the date the "Dentist and Dental Hygienist Compact" is entered into under section 4715.271 of the Revised Code, the board shall issue a report assessing the impact of having entered into the compact. The report shall include or address the following:

(1) The number of dentists and the number of dental hygienists practicing in this state pursuant to compact privileges;

(2) Any discernible impact, positive or negative, on the delivery of dental care in this state as a result of having entered into the compact.

The board shall make the report available on the internet web site it maintains and also shall submit copies to the speaker of the house of representatives, president of the senate, and chairpersons of the standing committees of the house of representatives and senate that are primarily responsible for considering health issues.

Last updated August 22, 2024 at 4:23 PM

November 14, 1969 Latest Legislation: House Bill 737 - 108th General Assembly

No person shall practice as or perform the duties of a dental hygienist in violation of sections 4715.20 to 4715.27, inclusive, of the Revised Code.

Whoever violates this section shall be guilty of a misdemeanor and shall be subject to the penalties provided for the illegal practice of dentistry in section 4715.99 of the Revised Code.

October 1, 1953 Latest Legislation: House Bill 1 - 100th General Assembly

No person shall employ a dental hygienist who has not complied with sections 4715.20 to 4715.27, inclusive, of the Revised Code.

October 3, 2023 Latest Legislation: House Bill 33 - 135th General Assembly

(A) Except as provided in division (K) of this section, an applicant for or holder of a certificate or license issued under this chapter is subject to disciplinary action by the state dental board for any of the following reasons:

(1) Employing or cooperating in fraud or material deception in applying for or obtaining a license or certificate;

(2) Obtaining or attempting to obtain money or anything of value by intentional misrepresentation or material deception in the course of practice;

(3) Advertising services in a false or misleading manner or violating the board's rules governing time, place, and manner of advertising;

(4) Commission of an act that constitutes a felony in this state, regardless of the jurisdiction in which the act was committed;

(5) Commission of an act in the course of practice that constitutes a misdemeanor in this state, regardless of the jurisdiction in which the act was committed;

(6) Conviction of, a plea of guilty to, a judicial finding of guilt of, a judicial finding of guilt resulting from a plea of no contest to, or a judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in lieu of conviction for, any felony or of a misdemeanor committed in the course of practice;

(7) Engaging in lewd or immoral conduct in connection with the provision of dental services;

(8) Selling, prescribing, giving away, or administering drugs for other than legal and legitimate therapeutic purposes, or conviction of, a plea of guilty to, a judicial finding of guilt of, a judicial finding of guilt resulting from a plea of no contest to, or a judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in lieu of conviction for, a violation of any federal or state law regulating the possession, distribution, or use of any drug;

(9) Providing or allowing dental hygienists, expanded function dental auxiliaries, or other practitioners of auxiliary dental occupations working under the certificate or license holder's supervision, or a dentist holding a temporary limited continuing education license under division (C) of section 4715.16 of the Revised Code working under the certificate or license holder's direct supervision, to provide dental care that departs from or fails to conform to accepted standards for the profession, whether or not injury to a patient results;

(10) Inability to practice under accepted standards of the profession because of physical or mental disability, dependence on alcohol or other drugs, or excessive use of alcohol or other drugs;

(11) Violation of any provision of this chapter or any rule adopted thereunder;

(12) Failure to use universal blood and body fluid precautions established by rules adopted under section 4715.03 of the Revised Code;

(13) Except as provided in division (H) of this section, either of the following:

(a) Waiving the payment of all or any part of a deductible or copayment that a patient, pursuant to a health insurance or health care policy, contract, or plan that covers dental services, would otherwise be required to pay if the waiver is used as an enticement to a patient or group of patients to receive health care services from that certificate or license holder;

(b) Advertising that the certificate or license holder will waive the payment of all or any part of a deductible or copayment that a patient, pursuant to a health insurance or health care policy, contract, or plan that covers dental services, would otherwise be required to pay.

(14) Failure to comply with section 4715.302 or 4729.79 of the Revised Code, unless the state board of pharmacy no longer maintains a drug database pursuant to section 4729.75 of the Revised Code;

(15) Any of the following actions taken by an agency responsible for authorizing, certifying, or regulating an individual to practice a health care occupation or provide health care services in this state or another jurisdiction, for any reason other than the nonpayment of fees: the limitation, revocation, or suspension of an individual's license to practice; acceptance of an individual's license surrender; denial of a license; refusal to renew or reinstate a license; imposition of probation; or issuance of an order of censure or other reprimand;

(16) Failure to cooperate in an investigation conducted by the board under division (D) of section 4715.03 of the Revised Code, including failure to comply with a subpoena or order issued by the board or failure to answer truthfully a question presented by the board at a deposition or in written interrogatories, except that failure to cooperate with an investigation shall not constitute grounds for discipline under this section if a court of competent jurisdiction has issued an order that either quashes a subpoena or permits the individual to withhold the testimony or evidence in issue;

(17) Failure to comply with the requirements in section 3719.061 of the Revised Code before issuing for a minor a prescription for an opioid analgesic, as defined in section 3719.01 of the Revised Code;

(18) Failure to comply with the requirements of sections 4715.71 and 4715.72 of the Revised Code regarding the operation of a mobile dental facility.

(B) A manager, proprietor, operator, or conductor of a dental facility shall be subject to disciplinary action if any dentist, dental hygienist, expanded function dental auxiliary, or qualified personnel providing services in the facility is found to have committed a violation listed in division (A) of this section and the manager, proprietor, operator, or conductor knew of the violation and permitted it to occur on a recurring basis.

(C) Subject to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the board may take one or more of the following disciplinary actions if one or more of the grounds for discipline listed in divisions (A) and (B) of this section exist:

(1) Censure the license or certificate holder;

(2) Place the license or certificate on probationary status for such period of time the board determines necessary and require the holder to:

(a) Report regularly to the board upon the matters which are the basis of probation;

(b) Limit practice to those areas specified by the board;

(c) Continue or renew professional education until a satisfactory degree of knowledge or clinical competency has been attained in specified areas.

(3) Suspend the certificate or license;

(4) Revoke the certificate or license.

Where the board places a holder of a license or certificate on probationary status pursuant to division (C)(2) of this section, the board may subsequently suspend or revoke the license or certificate if it determines that the holder has not met the requirements of the probation or continues to engage in activities that constitute grounds for discipline pursuant to division (A) or (B) of this section.

Any order suspending a license or certificate shall state the conditions under which the license or certificate will be restored, which may include a conditional restoration during which time the holder is in a probationary status pursuant to division (C)(2) of this section. The board shall restore the license or certificate unconditionally when such conditions are met.

(D) If the physical or mental condition of an applicant or a license or certificate holder is at issue in a disciplinary proceeding, the board may order the license or certificate holder to submit to reasonable examinations by an individual designated or approved by the board and at the board's expense. The physical examination may be conducted by any individual authorized by the Revised Code to do so, including a physician assistant, a clinical nurse specialist, a certified nurse practitioner, or a certified nurse-midwife. Any written documentation of the physical examination shall be completed by the individual who conducted the examination.

Failure to comply with an order for an examination shall be grounds for refusal of a license or certificate or summary suspension of a license or certificate under division (E) of this section.

(E) If a license or certificate holder has failed to comply with an order under division (D) of this section, the board may apply to the court of common pleas of the county in which the holder resides for an order temporarily suspending the holder's license or certificate, without a prior hearing being afforded by the board, until the board conducts an adjudication hearing pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. If the court temporarily suspends a holder's license or certificate, the board shall give written notice of the suspension personally or by certified mail to the license or certificate holder. Such notice shall inform the license or certificate holder of the right to a hearing pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.

(F) Any holder of a certificate or license issued under this chapter who has pleaded guilty to, has been convicted of, or has had a judicial finding of eligibility for intervention in lieu of conviction entered against the holder in this state for aggravated murder, murder, voluntary manslaughter, felonious assault, kidnapping, rape, sexual battery, gross sexual imposition, aggravated arson, aggravated robbery, or aggravated burglary, or who has pleaded guilty to, has been convicted of, or has had a judicial finding of eligibility for treatment or intervention in lieu of conviction entered against the holder in another jurisdiction for any substantially equivalent criminal offense, is automatically suspended from practice under this chapter in this state and any certificate or license issued to the holder under this chapter is automatically suspended, as of the date of the guilty plea, conviction, or judicial finding, whether the proceedings are brought in this state or another jurisdiction. Continued practice by an individual after the suspension of the individual's certificate or license under this division shall be considered practicing without a certificate or license. The board shall notify the suspended individual of the suspension of the individual's certificate or license under this division in accordance with sections 119.05 and 119.07 of the Revised Code. If an individual whose certificate or license is suspended under this division fails to make a timely request for an adjudicatory hearing, the board shall enter a final order revoking the individual's certificate or license.

(G) If the supervisory investigative panel determines both of the following, the panel may recommend that the board suspend an individual's certificate or license without a prior hearing:

(1) That there is clear and convincing evidence that an individual has violated division (A) of this section;

(2) That the individual's continued practice presents a danger of immediate and serious harm to the public.

Written allegations shall be prepared for consideration by the board. The board, upon review of those allegations and by an affirmative vote of not fewer than four dentist members of the board and seven of its members in total, excluding any member on the supervisory investigative panel, may suspend a certificate or license without a prior hearing. A telephone conference call may be utilized for reviewing the allegations and taking the vote on the summary suspension.

The board shall serve a written order of suspension in accordance with sections 119.05 and 119.07 of the Revised Code. The order shall not be subject to suspension by the court during pendency or any appeal filed under section 119.12 of the Revised Code. If the individual subject to the summary suspension requests an adjudicatory hearing by the board, the date set for the hearing shall be within fifteen days, but not earlier than seven days, after the individual requests the hearing, unless otherwise agreed to by both the board and the individual.

Any summary suspension imposed under this division shall remain in effect, unless reversed on appeal, until a final adjudicative order issued by the board pursuant to this section and Chapter 119. of the Revised Code becomes effective. The board shall issue its final adjudicative order within seventy-five days after completion of its hearing. A failure to issue the order within seventy-five days shall result in dissolution of the summary suspension order but shall not invalidate any subsequent, final adjudicative order.

(H) Sanctions shall not be imposed under division (A)(13) of this section against any certificate or license holder who waives deductibles and copayments as follows:

(1) In compliance with the health benefit plan that expressly allows such a practice. Waiver of the deductibles or copayments shall be made only with the full knowledge and consent of the plan purchaser, payer, and third-party administrator. Documentation of the consent shall be made available to the board upon request.

(2) For professional services rendered to any other person who holds a certificate or license issued pursuant to this chapter to the extent allowed by this chapter and the rules of the board.

(I) In no event shall the board consider or raise during a hearing required by Chapter 119. of the Revised Code the circumstances of, or the fact that the board has received, one or more complaints about a person unless the one or more complaints are the subject of the hearing or resulted in the board taking an action authorized by this section against the person on a prior occasion.

(J) The board may share any information it receives pursuant to an investigation under division (D) of section 4715.03 of the Revised Code, including patient records and patient record information, with law enforcement agencies, other licensing boards, and other governmental agencies that are prosecuting, adjudicating, or investigating alleged violations of statutes or administrative rules. An agency or board that receives the information shall comply with the same requirements regarding confidentiality as those with which the state dental board must comply, notwithstanding any conflicting provision of the Revised Code or procedure of the agency or board that applies when it is dealing with other information in its possession. In a judicial proceeding, the information may be admitted into evidence only in accordance with the Rules of Evidence, but the court shall require that appropriate measures are taken to ensure that confidentiality is maintained with respect to any part of the information that contains names or other identifying information about patients or complainants whose confidentiality was protected by the state dental board when the information was in the board's possession. Measures to ensure confidentiality that may be taken by the court include sealing its records or deleting specific information from its records.

(K) The board shall not refuse to issue a license or certificate to an applicant for either of the following reasons unless the refusal is in accordance with section 9.79 of the Revised Code:

(1) A conviction or plea of guilty to an offense;

(2) A judicial finding of eligibility for treatment or intervention in lieu of a conviction.

Last updated October 11, 2023 at 11:56 AM